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DownTownTonyBrown Mon Oct 16, 2006 02:22pm

NFHS Rules Interpretations - Interntional Foul on the Offense
 
Sorry if you have already discussed this stuff... I haven't been on the site for awhile.

The NFHS Points of Emphasis... http://www.nfhs.org/web/2006/05/2006..._emphasis.aspx

Concerning Intentional Fouls, state:
Additionally, in throw-in situations, fouling a player that is not involved in the play in any way (setting a screen, attempting to receive the in-bound pass, etc.) must be deemed intentional.

Does this mean we are being asked to call an intentional foul on the offense? I can believe some offensive team actions meeting the definition of intentional foul but has anyone done that, and what was the reaction of the coach/crowd?

Most of the offensive actions I can envision would just be called a foul - screener holds (foul, not intentional); reciever bangs into a stationary defender so he may get the pass (foul, not intentional); others.

When would I call an intentional foul on an offensive player during a throw-in? (Thereby, giving the defense two shots and the ball.)

I guess blatantly knocking the defensive player down... I would call intentional. Are there others?

Raymond Mon Oct 16, 2006 02:35pm

I had a partner call an Intentional (but not International) Foul on a player who had the ball, was being double teamed, and threw an elbow that connected to one of the defenders. I did not see the play (2-man, I was trail far from the play) but that is what my partner explained to me.

BktBallRef Mon Oct 16, 2006 02:39pm

You're misreading the statement.

"Additionally, in throw-in situations, fouling a player that is not involved in the play in any way (setting a screen, attempting to receive the in-bound pass, etc.) must be deemed intentional."

The statement means fouling the PLAYER WHO IS setting a screen, attempting to receive the in-bound pass. etc.

Nevadaref Mon Oct 16, 2006 06:48pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by BktBallRef
You're misreading the statement.

"Additionally, in throw-in situations, fouling a player that is not involved in the play in any way (setting a screen, attempting to receive the in-bound pass, etc.) must be deemed intentional."

The statement means fouling the PLAYER WHO IS setting a screen, attempting to receive the in-bound pass. etc.

Additionally, I believe that the parenthetical is providing examples of players who ARE involved in the play. It is telling you NOT to call an intentional foul on those players during a throw-in. This certainly could be worded more clearly.

ChuckElias Tue Oct 17, 2006 08:08am

If the person setting the screen were to set the screen but then wrap his arms around the person he was screening, that would be an intentional foul. Just as it would be an intentional foul for the defender to wrap his arms around a player trying to receive the throw-in pass.

Jimgolf Tue Oct 17, 2006 09:08am

Quote:

Originally Posted by BktBallRef
You're misreading the statement.

"Additionally, in throw-in situations, fouling a player that is not involved in the play in any way (setting a screen, attempting to receive the in-bound pass, etc.) must be deemed intentional."

The statement means fouling the PLAYER WHO IS setting a screen, attempting to receive the in-bound pass. etc.

I don't think so. It means fouling a player who is doing nothing must be called intentional. Fouling a player setting a screen is not a mandatory intentional foul, according to this statement.

If that was not their intent, then it is poorly worded. In fact it's poorly worded anyway.

Jimgolf Tue Oct 17, 2006 09:26am

Quote:

Originally Posted by Jurassic Referee
There's better wording in the POE on intentional fouls and this particular situation in this year's rule book.

POE4- <i>"Additionally, in throw-in situations, fouling a player that is <b>not</b> involved in the play in any way (<b>setting a screen</b>, attempting to receive the in-bounds pass, etc.) must be deemed intentional."</i>

That's much more definitive.

?????

The wording means fouling a player that is not setting a screen and not attempting to receive the in-bounds pass and not etc. must be deemed intentional.

Conversely fouling a player that is setting a screen or attempting to receive the in-bounds pass or etc. may or may not be an intentional foul, but is not an automatic intentional foul.

Associative property. Oh wait, that's multiplication.

(also applies to logical not).

Jurassic Referee Tue Oct 17, 2006 10:43am

Quote:

Originally Posted by Jimgolf
?????

The wording means fouling a player that is not setting a screen and not attempting to receive the in-bounds pass and not etc. must be deemed intentional.

Conversely fouling a player that is setting a screen or attempting to receive the in-bounds pass or etc. may or may not be an intentional foul, but is not an automatic intentional foul.

Associative property. Oh wait, that's multiplication.

(also applies to logical not).

I deleted my post above because it says exactly what BktBallRef had already told you. It was just a duplicate.

That wording isn't the least bit hazy imo. It's from POE #4 in this year's rule book, and it's about as definitive as the FED could make it.

<i>"In throw-in situations, fouling a player that is <b>not</b> involved in the play in any way(<b>setting a screen</b>, attempting to receive the in-bounds pass, etc.) <b>must</b> be deemed <b>intentional</b>".</i>

A player setting a screen is just an example that they gave of a player that is not involved in the play. By "not involved", the FED simply means that the player does <b>not</b> have the ball. The NFHS rulesmakers say that it <b>is</b> intentional; you're saying that it <b>may</b> be intentional. Correct?

If you don't agree with the FED, which I'm sure is the case, may I suggest that you run it by your local rules interpreter to get his opinion.

rainmaker Tue Oct 17, 2006 10:50am

Quote:

Originally Posted by Jurassic Referee
I deleted my post above because it says exactly what BktBallRef had already told you. It was just a duplicate.

That wording isn't the least bit hazy imo. It's from POE #4 in this year's rule book, and it's about as definitive as the FED could make it.

<i>"In throw-in situations, fouling a player that is <b>not</b> involved in the play in any way(<b>setting a screen</b>, attempting to receive the in-bounds pass, etc.) <b>must</b> be deemed <b>intentional</b>".</i>

A player setting a screen is just an example that they gave of a player that is not involved in the play. By "not involved", the FED simply means that the player does <b>not</b> have the ball. The NFHS rulesmakers say that it <b>is</b> intentional; you're saying that it <b>may</b> be intentional. Correct?

If you don't agree with the FED, which I'm sure is the case, may I suggest that you run it by your local rules interpreter to get his opinion.

JR, I gotta admit, that's not how I would interpret that sentence. Someone attempting to receive the in-bounds pass isn't involved in the play!?!? That seems weird to me. Do you have any other ruling or wording that would show your interpretation to be the correct one?

I'll also e-mail Howard and see what he says.

bob jenkins Tue Oct 17, 2006 10:51am

Quote:

Originally Posted by Jurassic Referee
I deleted my post above because it says exactly what BktBallRef had already told you. It was just a duplicate.

That wording isn't the least bit hazy imo. It's from POE #4 in this year's rule book, and it's about as definitive as the FED could make it.

<i>"In throw-in situations, fouling a player that is <b>not</b> involved in the play in any way(<b>setting a screen</b>, attempting to receive the in-bounds pass, etc.) <b>must</b> be deemed <b>intentional</b>".</i>

A player setting a screen is just an example that they gave of a player that is not involved in the play. By "not involved", the FED simply means that the player does <b>not</b> have the ball. The NFHS rulesmakers say that it <b>is</b> intentional; you're saying that it <b>may</b> be intentional. Correct?

If you don't agree with the FED, which I'm sure is the case, may I suggest that you run it by your local rules interpreter to get his opinion.

I think you're mis-reading the sentence (or, more accurately, I think the FED mis-worded the sentence). I think they are giving examples of players who *are* involved in the play and the foul should *not* be intentional (absent other criteria).

Jurassic Referee Tue Oct 17, 2006 11:01am

Quote:

Originally Posted by bob jenkins
I think you're mis-reading the sentence (or, more accurately, I think the FED mis-worded the sentence). I think they are giving examples of players who *are* involved in the play and the foul should *not* be intentional (absent other criteria).

Not really. I asked for feedback from another source and that's the way that they read and interpreted it too. If a defender fouls someone out of the play on a throw-in( iow a player without the ball and also not about to receive the ball), an intentional foul should be called. They're talking about those type of fouls being committed while the thrower still has the ball in his hands. The rationale is that the "going for the ball" part is not a factor if there is no ball for the defender to go for.

Jurassic Referee Tue Oct 17, 2006 11:05am

Quote:

Originally Posted by rainmaker
JR, I gotta admit, that's not how I would interpret that sentence. <font color = red>Someone attempting to receive the in-bounds pass isn't involved in the play!?!?</font> That seems weird to me. Do you have any other ruling or wording that would show your interpretation to be the correct one?

I'll also e-mail Howard and see what he says.

I didn't say that it related to someone attempting to receive a pass, and neither did the FED afaik. It relates to a defender fouling someone without the ball while the thrower still has the ball OOB, the way that I read it. If the pass was on the way, then the player in-bounds <b>would</b> be involved in the play. This FED POE applies to fouls on players that are <b>not</b> involved in the play.

See my response to Bob.

rainmaker Tue Oct 17, 2006 11:11am

Quote:

Originally Posted by Jurassic Referee
I didn't say that it related to someone attempting to receive a pass, and neither did the FED afaik. It relates to a defender fouling someone without the ball while the thrower still has the ball OOB, the way that I read it. If the pass was on the way, then the player in-bounds <b>would</b> be involved in the play. This FED POE applies to fouls on players that are <b>not</b> involved in the play.

See my response to Bob.

Well, that makes more sense to me, but the wording I used is right out of your earlier explanation. The question, it seems to me, is whether the items in the parentheses are examples of players being involved in the play, or not being involved in the play. If you're saying you asked someone that specfic question, and they said that the items are examples of not being involved in the play, then well, I don't agree with that, but oh, well. But I'd be interested in knowing who it was, and on what basis that interp is reached.

Raymond Tue Oct 17, 2006 11:11am

I gotta go with Bob, Juulie, JimGolf, et al on this one. My interpretation of the POE is that the plays cited (setting a screen; attempting to receive the pass) are examples of players who ARE involved in the play.

B3 may push or run through a screen set by A4. Or B2 may be guarding A2 who makes a sudden cut to get open for the pass and B2 may instinctly clutch or reach out for A2. Those would be common fouls in my eyes unless B3's contact was severe or B2 grabbed A2's jersey.

rainmaker Tue Oct 17, 2006 11:14am

Quote:

Originally Posted by BadNewsRef
I gotta go with .... Juulie, ....on this one. My interpretation of the POE is that the plays cited (setting a screen; attempting to receive the pass) are examples of players who ARE involved in the play.

Just for the record, I'm not an interpreter, and I"m not trying to be one, BNR. I'm questioning JR to understand what he's saying and on what he's basing that, but I have no intention of forwarding an interp of my own. So please don't quote me as an authority!!

Jurassic Referee Tue Oct 17, 2006 11:21am

Quote:

Originally Posted by rainmaker
Well, that makes more sense to me, but the wording I used is right out of your earlier explanation. The question, it seems to me, is whether the items in the parentheses are examples of players being involved in the play, or not being involved in the play. If you're saying you asked someone that specfic question, and they said that the items are examples of not being involved in the play, then well, I don't agree with that, but oh, well. But I'd be interested in knowing who it was, and on what basis that interp is reached.

Geeze, I hate to say this after all the fun that I've made of IAABO in the past, but I asked a pretty well-known IAABO rules interpreter who doesn't want his name used...ever. It wasn't Chuck either. I have the utmost respect for this gentlemen's rules acumen.....as I also do for Chuck's...but that certainly doesn't mean that he can't be wrong. We all are sometimes. His interpretation, as well as mine, was that the items in the parentheses are examples of players that are <b>not</b> involved in the play....and that not being involved in the play meant that they didn't have the ball and weren't about to receive the ball. They might be "attempting to receive a pass" by trying to get open,but they aren't actually in the act of receiving the pass.

Dan_ref Tue Oct 17, 2006 11:22am

Here it is, word for word:

Quote:

4. Intentional Fouls
The committee continues to be concerned about how games end. While there has been some improvement in the application of the rule, there is still need for further understanding and enforcement. An intentional foul is a personal or technical foul that neutralizes an opponent's obvious advantageous position. Contact away from the ball or when not making a legitimate attempt to play the ball or player, specifically designed to stop or keep the clock from starting, shall be intentional. Intentional fouls may or may not be premeditated and are not based solely on the severity of the act. A foul also shall be ruled intentional if while playing the ball a player causes excessive contact with an opponent.

Fouling is an accepted coaching strategy late in the game. There is a right way and a wrong way to foul. Coaches must instruct their players in the proper technique for strategic fouling. "Going for the ball" is a common phrase heard, but intentional fouls should still be called on players who go for the ball if it is not done properly.

Additionally, in throw-in situations, fouling a player that is not involved in the play in any way (setting a screen, attempting to receive the in-bound pass, etc.) must be deemed intentional. Far too often, officials do not call fouls as intentional when the act clearly meets the criteria.
IMO they could have eliminated the entire last paragraph and been much clearer. But let's take a step back - what are they getting at? A few years ago the fed, in their infinite wisdom, declared that strategic fouls are NOT legal. If a coach or player yelled "foul 'em" near the end of the game that was intentional. Interpreters even told coaches to invent code words for "foul 'em", and the smart ones did. And btw the smart officials ignored this nonsense.

A year or 2 later the fed decided - on second thought - that strategic fouls ARE legal and a legitimate part of the game. But they had to be done right. Now they are twisting themselves into pretzels trying to distill down the notion of a correctly executed strategic fouls into as few words as possible.

The play the fed is talking about here is essentially when B1 wraps his arms around A1 and starts screaming "hey ref! ref!! Lookatme!!!" while coach B starts jumping up & down pointing at his player to make sure you see it before the throw-in is completed and the clock starts. IOW fouls meant to intentionally stop the clock or keep it from starting that are even obvious to the blind guy out in the hallway selling popcorn.

This of course differs from strategic fouls, which are NONobvious fouls meant to stop the clock or keep it from starting....cough cough...

It's a fine line, but that's why they pay us the big bucks.

Jurassic Referee Tue Oct 17, 2006 11:29am

Quote:

Originally Posted by Dan_ref
Here it is, word for word:



IMO they could have eliminated the entire last paragraph and been much clearer. But let's take a step back - what are they getting at? A few years ago the fed, in their infinite wisdom, declared that strategic fouls are NOT legal. If a coach or player yelled "foul 'em" near the end of the game that was intentional. Interpreters even told coaches to invent code words for "foul 'em", and the smart ones did. And btw the smart officials ignored this nonsense.

A year or 2 later the fed decided - on second thought - that strategic fouls ARE legal and a legitimate part of the game. But they had to be done right. Now they are twisting themselves into pretzels trying to distill down the notion of a correctly executed strategic fouls into as few words as possible.

The play the fed is talking about here is essentially when B1 wraps his arms around A1 and starts screaming "hey ref! ref!! Lookatme!!!" while coach B starts jumping up & down pointing at his player to make sure you see it before the throw-in is completed and the clock starts. IOW fouls meant to intentionally stop the clock or keep it from starting that are even obvious to the blind guy out in the hallway selling popcorn.

This of course differs from strategic fouls, which are NONobvious fouls meant to stop the clock or keep it from starting....cough cough...

It's a fine line, but that's why they pay us the big bucks.

I understand what Dan is saying.

I agree with what Dan is saying. It's kinda what I've been trying to say.

Jimgolf Tue Oct 17, 2006 12:11pm

I understand what each of you are saying. However, it is clear that the FED ruling is confusing at best.

A player setting a screen is most defintely involved in the play. No possible interpretation could conclude that a person setting a screen is not in the play. A player receiving a pass is also in the play. If you think otherwise, then you will interpret the ruling differently.

Think of A1 setting a blind screen without time and distance where B1 runs into him. If we go by this interpretation, we must call an intentional foul on B1, when in reality this is a personal foul on A1.

By extension, if proper time and distance have been given, then this would be a personal foul on B1, not an intentional foul.

However, if A2 is just standing around, and B1 runs into him, this has to be an intentional foul, according to this ruling.

At least that's how I read it.

rainmaker Tue Oct 17, 2006 12:45pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by Jimgolf
I understand what each of you are saying. However, it is clear that the FED ruling is confusing at best.

A player setting a screen is most defintely involved in the play. No possible interpretation could conclude that a person setting a screen is not in the play. A player receiving a pass is also in the play. If you think otherwise, then you will interpret the ruling differently.

Think of A1 setting a blind screen without time and distance where B1 runs into him. If we go by this interpretation, we must call an intentional foul on B1, when in reality this is a personal foul on A1.

By extension, if proper time and distance have been given, then this would be a personal foul on B1, not an intentional foul.

However, if A2 is just standing around, and B1 runs into him, this has to be an intentional foul, according to this ruling.

At least that's how I read it.

I agree that the ruling is badly worded. I disagree with your extrapolations, though. I can't see how you'd ever get an intentional foul on B1 if A1 didn't give time and distance, even by the bad wording of hte rule.

I also agree with what Dan said about the intent of the rule, but I still think the Fed needs to address the wording, even though it's only a one year thing. I just don't understand why they can't shop their drafts around so that wording problems like this get fixed before the final printing. So frustrating!

ChuckElias Tue Oct 17, 2006 12:56pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by Jimgolf
Think of A1 setting a blind screen without time and distance where B1 runs into him.

I don't think that's a very good example, but I see where you're going. Here's a better example.

A1 has the ball OOB for the throw-in. A2, guarded by B2, moves to receive the throw-in pass. In trying to set a screen, A3 does not give B2 sufficient time and distance and contact results between A3 and B2.

If we use JR's interpretation, this is an intentional foul on A3. B2 did not have the ball and was not about to receive it. This cannot possibly be the intent of the POE. The only reasonable reading of the POE is that the players mentioned in the parenthetical examples are involved in the play.

Raymond Tue Oct 17, 2006 02:38pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by rainmaker
Just for the record, I'm not an interpreter, and I"m not trying to be one, BNR. I'm questioning JR to understand what he's saying and on what he's basing that, but I have no intention of forwarding an interp of my own. So please don't quote me as an authority!!

Don't worry Juulie, I would never quote anybody on this site as an authority. :p

Just agreeing with something you said.

BktBallRef Tue Oct 17, 2006 02:56pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by Jurassic Referee
Geeze, I hate to say this after all the fun that I've made of IAABO in the past, but I asked a pretty well-known IAABO rules interpreter who doesn't want his name used...ever. It wasn't Chuck either. I have the utmost respect for this gentlemen's rules acumen.....as I also do for Chuck's...but that certainly doesn't mean that he can't be wrong. We all are sometimes. His interpretation, as well as mine, was that the items in the parentheses are examples of players that are not involved in the play....and that not being involved in the play meant that they didn't have the ball and weren't about to receive the ball. They might be "attempting to receive a pass" by trying to get open,but they aren't actually in the act of receiving the pass.

Exactly. I didn't say it was well written or that it wasn't poorly worded. But the info within the parenthesis is refering to the player being fouled, not the player doing the fouling. It's that simple.

Some of you guys and gal are making this entirely too complicated. :(

You've been officials long enough to know how the Fed words these things and that they can word it poorly with little effort.

I stand by my original statement.

ronny mulkey Tue Oct 17, 2006 06:19pm

Think of A1 setting a blind screen without time and distance where B1 runs into him. If we go by this interpretation, we must call an intentional foul on B1, when in reality this is a personal foul on A1.

A good screen set by A1 outside of B1's vision is a foul on B1?

ChuckElias Tue Oct 17, 2006 06:54pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by ronny mulkey
Quote:

Originally Posted by Jim
Think of A1 setting a blind screen without time and distance where B1 runs into him. If we go by this interpretation, we must call an intentional foul on B1, when in reality this is a personal foul on A1.

A good screen set by A1 outside of B1's vision is a foul on B1?

Read it again, Ronny. ;)

ronny mulkey Wed Oct 18, 2006 05:57am

Quote:

Originally Posted by ChuckElias
Read it again, Ronny. ;)

Chuck,

I quoted the wrong paragraph. Look at Jimgolf's next paragraph and you will understand my question (and it is a question) better.

It might be a question better left to another post so as not to confuse the intentional foul part of of the original post. But, I read that next paragraph of Jimgolf's to mean that if a "good blind screen" set by A1 results in A1 getting ran over, then it would be a foul on B1???

It really goes to the how much contact is allowed if the person setting the good blind screen is ran over.

ChuckElias Wed Oct 18, 2006 07:39am

Quote:

Originally Posted by ronny mulkey
But, I read that next paragraph of Jimgolf's to mean that if a "good blind screen" set by A1 results in A1 getting ran over, then it would be a foul on B1???

It really goes to the how much contact is allowed if the person setting the good blind screen is ran over.

Ok, I see. Yeah, unless the "screenee" lowers a shoulder or continues to push after the initial contact, we can call that incidental contact, as long as the screener didn't have the ball.

Jimgolf Wed Oct 18, 2006 10:43am

Quote:

Originally Posted by ronny mulkey
Chuck,

I quoted the wrong paragraph. Look at Jimgolf's next paragraph and you will understand my question (and it is a question) better.

It might be a question better left to another post so as not to confuse the intentional foul part of of the original post. But, I read that next paragraph of Jimgolf's to mean that if a "good blind screen" set by A1 results in A1 getting ran over, then it would be a foul on B1???

It really goes to the how much contact is allowed if the person setting the good blind screen is ran over.

The assumption was that the contact would be sufficient to call a foul. I guess I can be confusing too. But I'm not being paid to write this stuff.

For those who think the words in the parentheses are refering to examples of players that are not involved in the play, who is involved in the play? Just the player inbounding the ball?

Camron Rust Wed Oct 18, 2006 12:37pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by Jurassic Referee
...His interpretation, as well as mine, was that the items in the parentheses are examples of players that are not involved in the play....and that not being involved in the play meant that they didn't have the ball and weren't about to receive the ball. They might be "attempting to receive a pass" by trying to get open,but they aren't actually in the act of receiving the pass.

Quite respectfully, Jurrassic, You're wrong on this one.

The parenthetical element contains examples of being in the play. If setting a screen to get someone open or trying to get open to receive the pass is not part of the play, I don't know what is. Those are fundamental and direct actions of being involved in the play.

The intentional foul is meant to be called when someone is fouled that is
  • not trying to get open for the inbounds pass
  • not trying to set a screen to get someone else open for the inbounds pass
That is exactly what the posted situation says.

ronny mulkey Wed Oct 18, 2006 03:20pm

[QUOTE=Jimgolf]The assumption was that the contact would be sufficient to call a foul. I guess I can be confusing too. But I'm not being paid to write this stuff.

Jim,

Forget the intentional aspect for a minute and discuss the screen set outside a player's field of vision. I see this called differently all the time and I have been part of discussions that vary on this subject. What contact is '"sufficient" on a screen set outside the screenee's vision to call a foul?

Mulk

bob jenkins Wed Oct 18, 2006 03:34pm

[QUOTE=ronny mulkey]
Quote:

Originally Posted by Jimgolf
The assumption was that the contact would be sufficient to call a foul. I guess I can be confusing too. But I'm not being paid to write this stuff.

Jim,

Forget the intentional aspect for a minute and discuss the screen set outside a player's field of vision. I see this called differently all the time and I have been part of discussions that vary on this subject. What contact is '"sufficient" on a screen set outside the screenee's vision to call a foul?

Mulk

Contact caused by the screenee who doesn't stop or go around once the contact is made.

ronny mulkey Wed Oct 18, 2006 05:22pm

[QUOTE=bob jenkins]
Quote:

Originally Posted by ronny mulkey

Contact caused by the screenee who doesn't stop or go around once the contact is made.

Over the years I remain confused on how to judge this play. Verbage on pages 65 and 66 of the rulebook indicate that contact can be ruled incidental even if it is severe and even if the screener is displaced.

At one of our State Clinics an example was given where the screener was smallish and the screenee was large and moving rapidly. The resulting collision was to be ruled incidental if the screenee stopped or ATTEMPTED to stop. However, I see it primarily called using your criteria.

I remain confused.:confused:

Jurassic Referee Wed Oct 18, 2006 06:08pm

[QUOTE=ronny mulkey]
Quote:

Originally Posted by bob jenkins


At one of our State Clinics an example was given where the screener was smallish and the screenee was large and moving rapidly. The resulting collision was to be ruled incidental if the screenee stopped or ATTEMPTED to stop. However, I see it primarily called using your criteria.

I remain confused.:confused:

The criteria is whether the player being screened stops or attempts to stop <b>upon</b> feeling the contact. The initial contact may be quite severe because the player being screened didn't see the screener and thus was unable to stop or slow down before the contact occured.

Iow, it's what the player being screened does <b>after</b> the contact that determines whether it's a foul or incidental contact. If they continue trying to go <b>through</b> the screen <b>after</b> the contact, then it's a foul. If they stop and have to go <b>around</b> the screener, then the screener has done their job and it's incidental contact. That's always a judgment call.

Make any more sense now, Ron?

ronny mulkey Wed Oct 18, 2006 07:10pm

[QUOTE=Jurassic Referee]
Quote:

Originally Posted by ronny mulkey
The criteria is whether the player being screened stops or attempts to stop <b>upon</b> feeling the contact. The initial contact may be quite severe because the player being screened didn't see the screener and thus was unable to stop or slow down before the contact occured.

Iow, it's what the player being screened does <b>after</b> the contact that determines whether it's a foul or incidental contact. If they continue trying to go <b>through</b> the screen <b>after</b> the contact, then it's a foul. If they stop and have to go <b>around</b> the screener, then the screener has done their job and it's incidental contact. That's always a judgment call.

Make any more sense now, Ron?

JR,

You always make sense to me BUT I am hung up on the verbage that allows severe contact and displacement which makes these following plays hard to judge. Assume the screenee did not lower shoulder or push through:

1. Screener is knocked down and screenee is standing and stopped. They go around the screener.

2. Screener is knocked down and screenee falls down beside screener, gets up and goes around screener.

3. screener is knocked down, screenee goes down on top of screener, rolls clear, gets up and goes around screener.

4. screener is knocked down, screenee STUMBLES over screener and keeps going.

Mulk

Camron Rust Wed Oct 18, 2006 07:40pm

[quote=ronny mulkey]
Quote:

Originally Posted by Jurassic Referee

JR,

You always make sense to me BUT I am hung up on the verbage that allows severe contact and displacement which makes these following plays hard to judge. Assume the screenee did not lower shoulder or push through:

1. Screener is knocked down and screenee is standing and stopped. They go around the screener.

2. Screener is knocked down and screenee falls down beside screener, gets up and goes around screener.

3. screener is knocked down, screenee goes down on top of screener, rolls clear, gets up and goes around screener.

4. screener is knocked down, screenee STUMBLES over screener and keeps going.

Mulk

No call in #1. A screener's purpose is to sacrifice their body (if necessary) to force the defender to take a longer path around.

No call in #2 unless the screen was not legal.

No call in #3. Again, the screen served it's purpose.

Foul in #4. The screenee proceeded right through the screen by use of contact that knocked the screener out of the way.

For number 1, 2, and 3, the assumption is that the screenee didn't see the screen in time to stop. If they saw the screen in time to stop or divert but still plowed into the screen, it would be a foul in most cases....not based on the advantage but to keep the game from getting too rough.

Jurassic Referee Wed Oct 18, 2006 08:05pm

[QUOTE=Camron Rust]
Quote:

Originally Posted by ronny mulkey

No call in #1. A screener's purpose is to sacrifice their body (if necessary) to force the defender to take a longer path around.

No call in #2 unless the screen was not legal.

No call in #3. Again, the screen served it's purpose.

Foul in #4. The screenee proceeded right through the screen by use of contact that knocked the screener out of the way.

For number 1, 2, and 3, the assumption is that the screenee didn't see the screen in time to stop. If they saw the screen in time to stop or divert but still plowed into the screen, it would be a foul in most cases....not based on the advantage but to keep the game from getting too rough.

Ronny, excellent explanation by Camron. I certainly concur completely with him.

The way that the FED explained it in a hand-out many years ago was that you don't want to penalize the player being screened twice. The player is penalized initially through a good, legal screen by being taken out of the play. That is the purpose of the screen, and the purpose was met. If you call the foul on top of that, then it's double jeopardy. If the player <b>isn't</b> taken out of the play--i.e. by forcing their way <b>through</b> the screen-- then they gained an illegal advantage through that contact and being called for the foul now will negate that illegal advantage.

just another ref Wed Oct 18, 2006 08:37pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by Camron Rust
Quite respectfully, Jurrassic, You're wrong on this one.

The parenthetical element contains examples of being in the play. If setting a screen to get someone open or trying to get open to receive the pass is not part of the play, I don't know what is. Those are fundamental and direct actions of being involved in the play.

The intentional foul is meant to be called when someone is fouled that is
  • not trying to get open for the inbounds pass
  • not trying to set a screen to get someone else open for the inbounds pass
That is exactly what the posted situation says.


At last, the voice of reason. Perhaps the sentence could have read: If a foul is committed against a player who is not involved in the play in some way, such as setting a screen or moving to try to receive a pass, it must be ruled intentional. In other words, don't grab and hold a player who is just standing there on the opposite end of the court without expecting the intentional foul to be called.
Would that not have been clearer?

Jurassic Referee Wed Oct 18, 2006 09:41pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by Camron Rust
Quite respectfully, Jurrassic, You're wrong on this one.

The parenthetical element contains examples of being in the play. If setting a screen to get someone open or trying to get open to receive the pass is not part of the play, I don't know what is. Those are fundamental and direct actions of being involved in the play.

The intentional foul is meant to be called when someone is fouled that is
I dLIST][*]not trying to get open for the inbounds pass[*]not trying to set a screen to get someone else open for the inbounds pass[/LIST]That is exactly what the posted situation says.

Disagree completely. The intentional foul is meant to be called when someone is :
1) trying to get open for an in-bounds pass but a defender just wraps him up.
2) fouled while setting a screen without the ball being anywhere in the vicinity of the screen.

Why else would any defender foul a screener <b>except</b> to stop the clock?

Camron, you interpret the POE one way. I interpret it a completely different. We simply disagree.

Jesse James Wed Oct 18, 2006 10:08pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by Jurassic Referee

Why else would any defender foul a screener <b>except</b> to stop the clock?

One point game, team B that's behind tries to deny the inbound to the only good ballhandler A has. A sets screens to get their ball-handler open, and B, intent on not letting A's ball handler get open, pushes through one of the screens.

Taking the POE literally, that's an automatic intentional foul, which is ludicrous.

Camron Rust Wed Oct 18, 2006 11:27pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by Jurassic Referee
Disagree completely. The intentional foul is meant to be called when someone is :
1) trying to get open for an in-bounds pass but a defender just wraps him up.

Agreed.
Quote:

Originally Posted by Jurassic Referee
2) fouled while setting a screen without the ball being anywhere in the vicinity of the screen.

Why else would any defender foul a screener except to stop the clock?
.

Why does a player foul the screener with 10 minutes left in a 10 point game? To get to the player they're supposed to be guarding. It is no more intentional in the last minute than in than 10 minutes earlier.

If that screen is being set to free up a player to possibly receive the ball, it is part of the play.

Quote:

Originally Posted by Jurassic Referee
Camron, you interpret the POE one way. I interpret it a completely different. We simply disagree.

The problem is not that we're interpreting it differently but in diametrically opposite meanings based on a poorly constructed sentence.

The POE is the counter to the Shaq-Attack....fouling the worst FT shooter on the floor no matter where they are....even when the throwin team is clearly trying to isolate them away from the play.

I agree that it could be read the way you suggest but that interpretation is simply illogical and inconsistent with all other publications on endgame intentional foul calling.

just another ref Wed Oct 18, 2006 11:33pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by Camron Rust
I agree that it could be read the way you suggest but that interpretation is simply illogical and inconsistent with all other publications on endgame intentional foul calling.


What he said.

rainmaker Thu Oct 19, 2006 12:46am

Just for the record...

I contacted Howard Mayo, who is our assignor here in Portland, OR, but more importantly, is the official NFHS rules interpreter for the state of Oregon, and has also been on the rules committee several years in the past.

He said that the examples in the parentheses were of players who were involved in the play.

Jurassic Referee Thu Oct 19, 2006 02:56am

Quote:

Originally Posted by rainmaker
Just for the record...

I contacted Howard Mayo, who is our assignor here in Portland, OR, but more importantly, is the official NFHS rules interpreter for the state of Oregon, and has also been on the rules committee several years in the past.

He said that the examples in the parentheses were of players who were involved in the play.

Really?

Fwiw, I disagree completely with Howard too then.

But.... who does Howard think that the throw-in intentional foul verbiage applies to then in that statement of the POE? What is his complete interpretation of what the NFHS rulesmakers are instructing us to do? What offensive players on a throw-in, other than screeners or players attempting to receive a throw-in,are the players that are being fouled that the FED says we <b>must</b> call those intentional fouls on?

What is Howard's interpretation of that statement in the POE, Juulie? How are intentional fouls on throw-ins supposed to be called, and who is the FED telling us to to call them on?

Iow, give us <b>his</b> full interpretation.

Nevadaref Thu Oct 19, 2006 04:55am

Quote:

Originally Posted by ronny mulkey
Jim,

Forget the intentional aspect for a minute and discuss the screen set outside a player's field of vision. I see this called differently all the time and I have been part of discussions that vary on this subject. What contact is '"sufficient" on a screen set outside the screenee's vision to call a foul?

Mulk

The contact in this case can be severe and yet still be incidental and not a foul. The key to judging this is that the screened player must make an effort to stop upon the contact.


Part of 10-6-3 ... "In cases of screens outside the visual field, the opponent may make inadvertent contact with the screener and if the opponent is running rapidly, the contact may be severe. Such a case is to be ruled as incidental contact provided the opponent stops or attempts to stop on contact and moves around the screen, and provided the screener is not displaced if he/she has the ball."

Nevadaref Thu Oct 19, 2006 05:00am

Quote:

Originally Posted by rainmaker
Just for the record...
He said that the examples in the parentheses were of players who were involved in the play.

Just for the record, I said that about 40 posts ago! :D

Of course, I'm not the NFHS interpreter for the state of Oregon. :eek:

Raymond Thu Oct 19, 2006 07:43am

Quote:

Originally Posted by Jesse James
One point game, team B that's behind tries to deny the inbound to the only good ballhandler A has. A sets screens to get their ball-handler open, and B, intent on not letting A's ball handler get open, pushes through one of the screens.

Taking the POE literally, that's an automatic intentional foul, which is ludicrous.

Agree totally.

Quote:

Originally Posted by Jurassic Referee
2) fouled while setting a screen without the ball being anywhere in the vicinity of the screen.

Why else would any defender foul a screener except to stop the clock?

disagree totally with this line of thinking. As I posted earlier:
  • B3 may push or run through a screen set by A4. Or B2 may be guarding A2 who makes a sudden cut to get open for the pass and B2 may instinctly clutch or reach out for A2. Those would be common fouls in my eyes unless B3's contact was severe or B2 grabbed A2's jersey.

bob jenkins Thu Oct 19, 2006 07:55am

[QUOTE=Camron Rust]
Quote:

Originally Posted by ronny mulkey

No call in #1. A screener's purpose is to sacrifice their body (if necessary) to force the defender to take a longer path around.

No call in #2 unless the screen was not legal.

No call in #3. Again, the screen served it's purpose.

Foul in #4. The screenee proceeded right through the screen by use of contact that knocked the screener out of the way.

For number 1, 2, and 3, the assumption is that the screenee didn't see the screen in time to stop. If they saw the screen in time to stop or divert but still plowed into the screen, it would be a foul in most cases....not based on the advantage but to keep the game from getting too rough.

Agreed on 1, 2 and 4.

On 3, I think it's a HTBT. If the screenee falls on the screener becuase s/he continued to run through the screen, then it's a foul. If the screenee attempts to stop, but the "upper body momentum" causes the fall, then it's a no call.

bob jenkins Thu Oct 19, 2006 07:59am

Quote:

Originally Posted by Jurassic Referee
Disagree completely. The intentional foul is meant to be called when someone is :
1) trying to get open for an in-bounds pass but a defender just wraps him up.

Agreed that this is an intentional foul, but only because of the "just wraps him up" -- that's an intentional foul at any point in the game. If B1 fouls A1 because B1 got to a position late, or "bumped the cutter", or held to stop A1 from using a screen, .... then it's a common foul.


Quote:

2) fouled while setting a screen without the ball being anywhere in the vicinity of the screen.

Why else would any defender foul a screener <b>except</b> to stop the clock?

Camron, you interpret the POE one way. I interpret it a completely different. We simply disagree.
Most screens during an imbound play are "without the ball being in the vicinity of the screen." The screens are designed to get a player open to receive a pass (and the player trying to get open might be the screener, if the defense switches). If the defense merely runs through the screen, or pushes the screener out of the way, then it's a common foul.

Camron Rust Thu Oct 19, 2006 11:51am

Quote:

Originally Posted by Jurassic Referee
Really?

Fwiw, I disagree completely with Howard too then.

But.... who does Howard think that the throw-in intentional foul verbiage applies to then in that statement of the POE? What is his complete interpretation of what the NFHS rulesmakers are instructing us to do? What offensive players on a throw-in, other than screeners or players attempting to receive a throw-in,are the players that are being fouled that the FED says we must call those intentional fouls on?

What is Howard's interpretation of that statement in the POE, Juulie? How are intentional fouls on throw-ins supposed to be called, and who is the FED telling us to to call them on?

Iow, give us his full interpretation.

Let's draw a picture....

A1 with ball for throwin at baseline in backcourt. A2 & A3 nearby. A4 and A5 standing at FT line on other end of court.
  • Case 1: As A1 is looking to pass to A2, B5 shoves A5. Call? Intentional Foul. A5 was not involved in the play.
  • Case 2: As A1 is looking to pass to A2, B2 holds A2. Call? Common Foul. A2 was involved in the play.
  • Case 3: As A1 is looking to pass to A2 who is comming off a screen by A3, B2 pushes A3 out of the way to keep up with A2. Call? Common Foul. A3 was involved in the play.
  • Case 4: As A1 is looking to pass to A2 who is comming off a screen by A3, B2 bearhugs A3. Call? Intentional Foul. No play on the ball.
  • Case 5: As the ball is in the air to A2, B3 fouls A3 on the other side of the court. Intentional foul. Once the ball was in the air to A2 on the other side of the floor, A3 was no longer in the play.

Jurassic Referee Thu Oct 19, 2006 12:25pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by Camron Rust
Let's draw a picture....

A1 with ball for throwin at baseline in backcourt. A2 & A3 nearby. A4 and A5 standing at FT line on other end of court.
  • Case 1: As A1 is looking to pass to A2, B5 shoves A5. Call? Intentional Foul. A5 was not involved in the play.
  • Case 2: As A1 is looking to pass to A2, B2 holds A2. Call? Common Foul. A2 was involved in the play.
  • Case 3: As A1 is looking to pass to A2 who is comming off a screen by A3, B2 pushes A3 out of the way to keep up with A2. Call? Common Foul. A3 was involved in the play.
  • Case 4: As A1 is looking to pass to A2 who is comming off a screen by A3, B2 bearhugs A3. Call? Intentional Foul. No play on the ball.
  • Case 5: As the ball is in the air to A2, B3 fouls A3 on the other side of the court. Intentional foul. Once the ball was in the air to A2 on the other side of the floor, A3 was no longer in the play.

Disagree with Case 2 and maybe case 3 if you judge the push was aimed to stop the clock.

Dan_ref Thu Oct 19, 2006 12:30pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by Jurassic Referee
Disagree with Case 2 and maybe case 3 if you judge the push was aimed to stop the clock.

I agree with Mr Big Dawg.

Camron Rust Thu Oct 19, 2006 10:37pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by Jurassic Referee
Disagree with Case 2 and maybe case 3 if you judge the push was aimed to stop the clock.

I agree with you if the aim is to stop the clock. That is where the judgement comes in. If that hold looks like the 10 prior holds you've called all game without them being intentional, I can not agree with making this one intentional just because the clock has less than 1:37 on it. If the player is merely grabbing the arm and hanging on for dear life for no other reason than just to hang on, call the intentional. Same thing on the screen.

If the fed wanted us to automatically call everything intentional when a player without the ball gets fouled they'd give us a specifc time and say the foul is intentional if the player doesn't currently have the ball. They didn't. They used the term not involved in the play....to include players without the ball that are still involved in the play....setting screens, cutting to get open for passes, etc.


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