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Is losing a ball out of bounds considered a change of possession when considering whether to go with point of interruption on a correctable error?
For example, B1 commits a common foul against A1. Team A is in the bonus but the table and the officials do not recognize this. Team A inbounds the ball. While passing the ball around the ball goes out of bounds off of A2. It's now B's ball. While the ball is dead and before it is made live for the throw-in, the table notifies the officials that A1 should have shot a 1-and-1. Has possession officially changed? Do we allow A1 to shoot his free-throws with the lane cleared and then continue with the POI with a throw-in by B? Do violations or fouls also cause a change of possession for this purpose? For example, A1 travels or pushes B1. In both cases if the correctable error is recognized before the ball becomes live on the throw-in do we go with the POI after the 1-and-1 for A1? Thanks! Randall |
I say no change of possession in either scenario since the ball is not yet at B's disposal for a throw-in. I would say you go back and play on from A's merited free throws. I don't have the books in front of me but that's my initial opinion.
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I would consider the point of interruption to be the throw-in by B. Yes, I would clear the lane for A's throws, then resume with a spot throw-in by B.
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Interesting question. The rule book doesn't define "change of possession."
What's fair? Shoot the FTs and then give the ball to B for a throw-in. What do I think the rules support? Resume play with the FTs. I don't recall seeing this in the case boo and I'm not looking now. Smebody else can. :) |
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While B doesn't have control, they do have "possession". It's not explicitly defined in any book but it's B's ball as soon as the infraction occurs. What if you started the throwin, B takes a timeout, then it is disocvered in the timeout? Assuming it is still correctable, I think this example demonstrates that it really is B's ball.
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I could be convinced either way, but on first look, I go with the OOB violation is a change of possession. |
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The same logic should apply here. |
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Why, not correctable?
My original example is correctable, is it not? We have until the first dead ball after the clock starts. The clock started when the ball was touched on the inbounds pass. The first dead ball occurred when the ball went out of bounds, the violation or foul occurred.
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Re: Why, not correctable?
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