Aw geeze, it ain't really a fight, Nevada. Just a philosophy difference. :)

What about the example in the rulebook where a coach is going crazy right when the defense gets a steal and goes on a breakaway, are we supposed to call a T right then or wait till the play is complete? In this respect we are supposed to wait for the play to finish and then assess the penalty.

I am not making up my own rules, I am just waiting for the play to develop and finish so I can assess the penalty. But there are a lot of different philosophies on this board and you at least have to respect them all. Good debate. Keep it coming.

10.4.1 has the situation where the T is delayed until the result of the play. In the situation, it would give an advantage to the defense to call the T immediately, so there is some justification for holding the whistle.

My question, however, ball is in the air on a try, and double foul is called, and it goes in. I have heard enforce the double foul, and give it to the scored upon team for an endline throw in, as after a made basket. I have also heard, since the foul occurred during a period of no team control, whatever the result of the try, you go to the AP arrow.

Frank, by rule, you go to the arrow when "the point of interruption is such that neither team is in control and no goal, infraction, nor end of quarter/ extra period is involved.

In your case, there is a goal involved. Since we know without doubt who would've gotten the ball when we interrupted the game, that's who we give it to. Team B's ball anywhere along the endline.

I asked this in another thread that died, there were no responses. Hopefully this question won't kill this thread also.

Team B scores a basket and A1 takes the ball for an inbounds pass. A2 and B2 commit a double foul 1) Before A1 releases the ball on an inbounds pass; or, 2) After A1 releases the inbounds pass (the foul occurs as the ball is crossing mid court - does location matter of the non-touched in bounds pass matter?) but before it is touched inbounds.

Assuming Team A retains the ball, does A1 still get to run the base line if the ensuing throwin is along the endline?

[QUOTE]Originally posted by Ref in PA
[B]I asked this in another thread that died, there were no responses. Hopefully this question won't kill this thread also.

Team B scores a basket and A1 takes the ball for an inbounds pass. A2 and B2 commit a double foul 1) Before A1 releases the ball on an inbounds pass; or, 2) After A1 releases the inbounds pass (the foul occurs as the ball is crossing mid court - does location matter of the non-touched in bounds pass matter?) but before it is touched inbounds.

Assuming Team A retains the ball, does A1 still get to run the base line if the ensuing throwin is along the endline?

designated spot throw-in

Why?

Aren't you a female? The correct word would be "gal" not guy, right?

And why would you promise? I thought an official should be neutral without any predetermined calls that may favor one team or another. What about integrity and applying NFHS rules with good judgments?

I'm guessin' you missed the bold type. She will NEVER be the guy making that call. Now, maybe she'll be the gal making that call, but there's NO WAY she'll be the guy making that call. ;)

Don't worry Juulie - not all your jokes go thud.

The acts being a live ball foul kills the play which in turn you go with designated spot throw-in.

Well, the reason I'm asking is not necessarily to be a smart-a$$, (although some have told me I do a good job of it...), but doesn't 7-5-7 say the non-scoring team retains the right of a baseline throw-in if the scoring team commits a foul or violation close to that baseline? However, it seems to make sense that the team making the throw-in also committed a foul, so why shouldn't they lose the right to run the baseline?

If the fouls occured way out on the court, then I can see the spot throw-in nearest to the fouls. But if the throw-in will be on the same baseline by the same team, what makes them lose the baseline?

R7-5-7 sez that the non-scoring team retains the right to run the baseline only if the scoring team commits a <b>common</b> foul. A double personal foul is <b>not</b> a common foul.

R7-5-9 is the relevant rule. Play is resumed at the POI.The POI is covered under R4-36-2(a)-- the team that was in control gets a throw-in at the <b>spot</b> nearest to where the ball was located when the double foul occurred.

But, there is no team control during a throw-in, right? So POI wouldn't apply?

Sorry- shoulda said R4-36-2(b)-- "Play shall be resumed by a free throw or <b>a throw-in</b> when the stoppage occurred <b>during</b> this activity or if a team is entitled to such".

In my defense, I'm still in shock that a basketball official-- any basketball official-- didn't know what a brownpop was.

And a very valid defense it is. ;)

So, back to the original question: does the team lose the baseline priviledge? If it does, then why? Isn't the team still "entitled to such"?