In the Pistons/Heat game the other day, A1 was shooting two free throws. Shot the first, then a T was given to someone on A1's team. B1 then shot the free throw for the T, then A1 shot his second free throw.

Would the order this happened be different in FED?

Yep. In NF, fouls (including T's) are penalized in the order they occur. So, in a HS game, you would clear the lane for A1's second shot, then B would shoot the second T, followed by B getting the ball at half court.

Thats what I thought, thanks.

Do you think NBA players would show more constraint if a T resulted in 2 shots instead of one and resulted in the other team getting the ball?

Also, my spectator only knowledge seems to think a T in the NBA does NOT count toward the individual's foul total. Is this correct. Add that to the 2 shots and the ball and maybe players would stop whining so publically.

Could just as likely result in the officials calling fewer T's if the offended team got 2 FTs & the ball.

That's why, at least in NCAA-W, they went to point-of-interuption, instead of loss of possession. The rules committee thought officials were not calling enough T's when the committee thought they were warranted, so they made the penalty slightly less severe.