A1 goes in for a lay-up and travels (3 steps) followed by B1 fouling A1 hard nocking A1 into the second row. Hard enough to be an intentional foul-probably not flarant.

What's the call-HS Fed rules? I'm thinking just a travel but the foul was pretty hard to ignore. Can it be a technical on a dead ball even though it happened so fast the travel wasn't called yet?

Saw this in the Rockets-Suns game. Of course since this is NBA so the travel wasn't called. A1 saw the foul coming and braced for it-maybe even went looking for it. Refs called normal foul.

If the player actually travelled, then traveling is the correct (and only) call. If you judge the contact after the travel as intentional or flagrant, then the subsequent call would be an intentional or flagrant technical foul.

Just follow your instincts as to which is best for that particular situation. The rules back you up.

Correct would be to first call the traveling violation. Now you remember that the ball is dead at the time of the violation, not when the whistle blows for the official to then make the call. Therefore, the contact is during a dead ball and if, as you say, the contact was severe enough to be called an intentional foul then you have an intentional technical foul.

Yep, check out 4-19-1

<i>Note: Contact after the ball has become dead is ignored unless it is ruled intentional or flagrant or is committed by or on an airborne shooter.</i>

:D

[Edited by tjones1 on Mar 14th, 2005 at 11:28 AM]

better edit that post there tjones... before we have some crude jokes.

LOL! How come Mark Padgett hasn't said anything yet?! :p