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stripes74 Tue Feb 22, 2005 03:26pm

Saw a game last week During jump ball to start the game A5 tips the ball into his frontcourt to A3 who tips the ball to A1 who is standing in the backcourt . Do you think this is a backcourt violation? Did A3 control the ball to start the AP. Thanks for your input.

bradfordwilkins Tue Feb 22, 2005 03:30pm

Based on your word usage "tip" I would have to say no. He never established possession.

stripes74 Tue Feb 22, 2005 03:40pm

He intentionally directed the ball to A1 so isn't that controlling the ball?

Mark Padgett Tue Feb 22, 2005 03:45pm

Quote:

Originally posted by stripes74
He intentionally directed the ball to A1 so isn't that controlling the ball?
Here we go again. During a period of no team control (like a jump), team control is established when a player establishes player control. Player control is defined as "holding or dribbling a live ball inbounds". Since team control is one of the four elements that must be present to have an over and back violation, A1 would have had to have held or dribbled the ball. If he did either, you have a violation. If he did neither, you do not.

"Controlling" is not a recognized or relevant term in this instance. It's your call whether or not you consider what he did with the ball was "holding" it.

That's why we get the big bucks. :p

Forksref Wed Feb 23, 2005 01:02am

I had a similar situation this year: Throw-in near the time line. Ball hits leg of A player in front court and bounces into the back court where he picked it up and started dribbling. No violation as there was no control in the front court prior to the ball going to the back court. Of course, the throw-in was on the bench side, so I got to hear the usually "well-informed" coach tell me it was a violation.


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