assignmentmaker |
Wed Feb 16, 2005 12:49am |
Forgive me if this has been discussed to death before, but, if it has, I missed the funeral.
While a player does not violate when gaining control of the ball while sliding on the floor, what if a player gains control while on his/her feet, two feet, and slides?
Had control been gained on one foot or the other, at the very least a pivot foot has been moved, but, since in the case of a two-footed landing no pivot foot has been declared . . .
Perhaps such sliding is the topological equivalent of jumping up in the air and landing . . . you moved them both, so one of them - just which is moot - must have been the pivot foot.
Here come duh judge . . . now I'm in trouble . . .
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