Huge disagreement at work. Hand is part of the ball. It is my opinion that while making a legitimate play on the ball the defenders hand may contact the hand of the offensive player as long as it is on the ball. I dont believe that it makes any difference if the offensive player is shooting, dribbling, or standing. For example, if a player is holding the ball and the defender slaps at the ball and hits hand and ball (not wrist) and makes a slapping noise, is it a foul (non-flagrant manner)? Thanks to all. I would appreciate as many postings as possible. This guy may only take Larry Bird's word or maybe the supervisor of NBA officials.

You are correct, with regard to American High School rules (NFHS) and NCAA, I believe. I would assume the NBA is the same, although I don't have much confidence in that assumption.

Neither Larry Bird, nor the supervisor of NBA officials posts here. But even if they did, what they said might not be true for anything besides NBA. Since there are about five major rulesets, and who knows how many small rec-league type modifications, there's no way anyone can definitively answer the question for all situations. But generally speaking you, not your co-worker, are correct. For high school rules.

I had a guy in Men's Rec League recently ask my I didn't call this even though the whole gym heard it. He approached during a time out and was respectful so I told him that "by rule, it's not a foul". He looked confused but said nothing more til after the game. He said that he'd talked to the other guys, some of which play in lots of leagues and they've never heard of that rule. I asked his entire team what's OOB regarding the backboard and not one of them knew the rule. He then understood that it was possible that they didn't know the hand is part of the ball rule either.

"Hand is part of the ball" is announcer-speak, and not part of the rule book. What the rules state, essentially, is that contact with the hand is permitted by a defender making a play on the ball, while the ball is in contact with the hand.

I don't have my NFHS book handy, but from the NCAA rule book:
Section 34. Hands and Arms, Use of
Art. 2. It shall be legal for a defender to accidentally hit the hand of a ball-handler when reaching to block or slap the ball when there is player control with that player’s hand in contact with the ball and when that player is a:
a. Dribbler
b. Player attempting a try for field goal, or
c. Player holding the ball.

Not completely true. By rule, it's not a foul <b>only</b> if the contact is incidental. A defender <b>deliberately</b> hitting an opponent's hand while it's on the ball is a foul.

NFHS 10-6-1-- "He/she shall not contact an opponent with his/her hand unless such contact is only with the opponent's hand and is <b>incidental to an attempt to play the ball</b>".

How is the word "hand" interpreted? I noticed someone mentioned in this thread "not wrist". If contact is made either on or below the wrist, I assume that is a foul. Is that correct?

Further, I've seen several shooting scenarios that seem to push the envelope on this ruling:

Example 1: Offense is shooting a jump shot (i.e., ball still in hand of shooter) and defense attempts to block shot but hits offensive player's arm (below the wrist) without making contact with the ball. Shot is significantly altered and does not have a chance to go in (i.e., airball).

Example 2: Same scenario as above except that shooter has released the ball and defender makes contact with shooter's arm (below the wrist) as shooter is following thru on the shot. Same result occurs (shot is significantly altered, no chance to even get to the basket).

Example 3: Same scenario as #2 except contact is made with the shooter's hand after the ball is released.

What is the ruling in these 3 scenarios?

Thanks.

IMO:

1. Foul
2 Foul
3. Foul

Two or three shots (if try was from beyond arc) in all cases.

1 Depends
2 No
3 No

Example 2 and 3 are the same in my mind.
 

Correct me if I'm wrong but if, as in example 2 above, the shooter has released the ball (i.e. its no longer touching his/her hand) then the follow through can have no bearing on the shot. Due to the fact that the hand is not on the ball, there can be no additional momentum or change in direction by anything the shooter does with his hand. How is this different to example 3? The only time contact can effect the shot is if the ball is in the hands of the shooter.

Would it not be considered incidental contact if the ball has been released and had no effect on the shot?

In answer to your question rwest, the only difference between 2 and 3 is what part of the arm is contacted. You are correct that since the ball has left the shooter's hand in each case, the contact should in neither case affect the success of the shot.

Does it make a difference if the shooter is airborne? If the airborne shooter releases the ball, and is struck on the wrist, forearm, etc, while the shooter still in the air, and has no influence on the shot, should this contact be called a foul?

This is where knowing the rule is one thing and applying the rule is another.
The book say that any contact mad on a shooter while airborne is a foul in other word protect the shooter.

If it was me I would not call any fouls on all 3 situation because the ball is already released and the contact is nothing more than incidental, the contact did not alter the shot since it was already released, the only time I would called it a foul is only when the contact is hard where it knock a player to the ground or when the defender try to block the shot and comes down and undercut the player by landing in his/her spot.
So if there is no advantage to these foul which is all incidental than use ur judgement apply the rules when needed not because the book say so.

In situation 1, the ball has not yet been released. Foul.

sry my bad read it to fast, situation #1 is a foul since the ball has not left the hand yet the other 2 is no in my book.