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Old Thu Dec 09, 2004, 01:19pm
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Question 1 of the iabbo refresher test (yes, I hate not even getting past the first question!)--
A1 preparing to attempt first of two free throws. B1, in a marked lane space, fakes as it to enter the lane. A1 shoots but does not catch iron. Disconcertion is not involved. Official rules this a double violation. Is the official correct? Answer key says "no"
I'm looking at Rule 9, penalty section 4:b,c,d

b) If the second violation is by the free thrower, both violations are penalized. (isn’t *this* what happens in this test question?)
c) If a violation by the free thrower follows disconcertion, a substitute free throws results – (but the question says there was no disconcertion).

d) If a fake causes a *teammate* of the free thrower to violate, only the fake is penalized. (This did not happen in the test question.)

Isn't the net result here simply moving on and letting the shooter take his/her second free throw?
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Old Thu Dec 09, 2004, 02:01pm
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I read it the same way you do too. I agree with your answer also. Who knows? Answers given out on the IAABO tests on some questions have been wrong before. Ditto for NASO and FED questions too. Sounds like this might be another example of that.
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Old Thu Dec 09, 2004, 03:19pm
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If I had to guess, I would say that the fake is not penalized unless it works. If a player on the lane flinches, it's not a violation unless his/her opponent enters the lane early. That's my guess.
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Old Thu Dec 09, 2004, 03:33pm
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The reason the answer is NO is because in this situation,
SIMULTANEOUS violations have occurred, not a DOUBLE violation.
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Old Thu Dec 09, 2004, 03:40pm
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Quote:
Originally posted by ChuckElias
If I had to guess, I would say that the fake is not penalized unless it works. If a player on the lane flinches, it's not a violation unless his/her opponent enters the lane early. That's my guess.
I agree -- 9-1-4: ... nor shall any player ... fake TO CAUSE AN OPPONENT TO VIOLATE.

No penalty just for faking.

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Old Thu Dec 09, 2004, 04:01pm
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Quote:
Originally posted by nine01c
The reason the answer is NO is because in this situation,
SIMULTANEOUS violations have occurred, not a DOUBLE violation.
I thought of that, but what difference do those two words mean in the net result of the play?
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Old Thu Dec 09, 2004, 04:42pm
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The question doesn't ask how the official handles this situation (moves on to second free throw). It asks if it is indeed a double violation. Picky, but the answer is NO since it is simultaneous.
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Old Thu Dec 09, 2004, 06:23pm
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Thumbs up

I agree with Chuck & Bob's guess above -- the reason the answer is no is because it is not a double violation but instead it is a single violation -- the fake is not a violation if it does not cause anyone else to violate; therefore the only violation is on the shooter for missing the rim.
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Old Thu Dec 09, 2004, 10:07pm
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This was discussed at length at the IAABO clinic (local).
The interpreter said it was a simultaneous violation. The IAABO website gives the answer key with references.

Number 1 is NO: Rule 9 Section 1 Article 4 Penalty 3(3)
Maybe the IAABO ruling is completely wrong.

I think #46 should be NO (for another interesting discussion).
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