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Old Thu Nov 11, 2004, 09:28am
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Join Date: Aug 1999
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Quote:
Originally posted by Jurassic Referee
To go back to the original dispute, would you grant the other team's request for a TO if the ball was available and at the disposal in-bounds of the team that was making the throw-in, Bob? If so, under what rule(s)? And what about 6.1.2SitB(a) where it says the TO can't be granted even though the ball is bouncing in-bounds if it's at the thrower's disposal?
No, I wouldn't grant the TO if the ball was at the disposal of the inbouding team. The question is and has always been how "disposal" is defined / practiced.

IMHO, If B has the ball OOB, or could have had the ball OOB, then it's at their disposal. If it's "too soon" for them to have the ball OOB, then it's not at their disposal.

The definition of "too soon" is the same as the definition of pornography -- I know it when I see it.
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