After a made basket, team A throws a long pass the length of the court. A2 catched the ball, but is standing on the end-line at the opposite end of the court. Where does team B get the ball for the throw-in? Does B get the ball at the original throw-in spot (under A's basket) or at the spot where A2 caught the ball?

B will get the ball where A2 caught it out of bounds, the only time it goes back to the original throw in spot is if no one touches it and it goes oob. That is as long as A2 was in bounds when he left the floor to catch the ball.

That was the decision, but I was second guessed on it.
Thanks...I couldn't find an example of this in the case book.

9-2-2 (NF) Fail to pass the ball directlyinto the court so it is touches or is touched by another player(inbounds or
out of bounds) on the court before going out of bounds untouched.

in your case where A2 caught the ball.

Are you sure your response is right? I do not have my rule book with me here at work but I am guessing that you added the (inbounds or out-of-bounds) to the rule. My gut feeling, without checking with the rules, is that a first touch out bounds is the same as no touch at all. What if the player is standing 5 feet out of bounds? Is that still a touch? If not, what is the difference? A single foot on the line is as much out of bounds as both feet, five feet outside the line.

His response and the rule that he quoted are correct. The ball only goes back to the original spot if it goes OOB untouched by a player. It doesn't matter how far OOB the player is.

An easy way to determine this is to consider who committed the violation. When the ball goes OOB untouched, it is a violation by the thrower, thus the spot is the spot of the original throw-in.

Now, consider if the A2 touches/catches the ball while a foot is OOB....a violation. Who is this on? It must be on A2 and B gets the ball at that spot.

Why? What if you change A2 to B2 in all cases. Now, if you had concluded that it was a violation on the thrower to have the ball first touched OOB by a player, the violation would still be on A1 and B would get the ball. To get the ball, all B has to do is have a foot OOB (or otherwise have OOB status) and touch the ball before anyone else. For example, as A1 releases the ball, B1, who is guarding the throw-in, steps on the line and reaches to touch the ball. Tweet. Violation on the thrower...B's ball. Of course this is not the case.

This counter example should clearly show why the violation would not be on the thrower.

Camron - where have you been? Hey - remember the post we had just like this where we argued about whether the clock should be reset if it started when A2 touched the ball after an inbound on a spot throwin? If I recall, you said that the administering official should drop his arm as soon as A2 touches the ball and then the nearest official should blow his whistle as soon as he realizes A2 is OOB, so it is natural for the clock operator to start, then immediately stop the clock, so under NF rules, you could have the time lag. After chewing on it for a while, I agreed you were right. Any other opinions out there?

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