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Old Mon Jun 21, 2004, 03:35pm
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when excecuting a jump stop to end a dribble, the dribbler is supposed to land 2 feet simultaneously on beat 2.

But what if they land with not huge but discernible difference in time? do you call it a violation in the a non-advantageous case:
the dribbler does not gain more ground by pushing the first landed foot, so no obious adavatage is taken, even when he is attacking the basket?

Thanks.

ysong


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Old Mon Jun 21, 2004, 03:39pm
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Technically, it's a travel if both feet do not land simultaneously. In reality, many officials, even at very high levels, no call this unless it's so blatent that it can't be ignored.
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Old Mon Jun 21, 2004, 05:50pm
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The word simultaneous as used in the rule book most always means "approximately the same time". In many cases, it is explicity clarified as such either in the case book or related sections of the rule book.

In this case, I don't know if there is such a clarification but, as Chuck said, many officials require a clear and distinct delay between the footfalls before they will call it.
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