Free Throw admin- NBA
 

Does anyone know why the NBA went back to handing the ball to the shooter on the FT? I figure that for most things to change, be it rules or mechanics, there is a reason for the change. I'm just curious what advantage was seen in doing this. Would there be any reason for college or HS to switch?

Btw,searched through past threads to see if this topic was already discussed, and didn't see it, sorry if it has been-

My 2 resident NBA rules practitioners say it to prevent inordinate delays by shooters by having an official closeby. Also, only applies to first shot.

How about just count to 10 and then call the violation?


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When asked about it in October or November, an NBA official who was guest speaker at a local association meeting said it was due to the desire on the part of the NBA to crop dead time from TV broadcasts. They determined that the C administering the first FT saved time and, though only a little each time, it all added up to several minutes of time savings each game. And in the TV stratosphere of economics, those minutes are apparently quite valuable.
That's what he said.
We used to do it that way all the time.

So does that mean they originally went from handing the ball to the shooter to bouncing it in order to lengthen the game? LOL, that would have been a strange reason for that change.

It likely takes longer to get the shooter in place. I can see if that is the reason, it could easily speed things up.

Peace

This isn't a delay by the shooter actually shooting it correct? More the scenario where the shooter walks around outside the 3 point line before receiving the ball?

I'm sure they did the math and the research, but wow, that seems like a lot of time!

10 seconds only applies once the ball is at the FT shooter's disposal.

As I understand it, this is to curb delays before that. Some guys like to walk around and do all kind of stuff before stepping to the line. Russell Westbrook was a regular culprit of this. Some have even suggested this has contributed to his FT % dropping nearly 14% this season compared to last.

I'm not sure how consequential it is overall but for some reason I like the way they administer it.

So, if the rule is the same as NFHS, put the ball on the floor and start counting. Or, if players were taking too much time to get in place, call a DOG. Use the rules in place, don't change the official's mechanics to accommodate.

Perhaps you'd favor us with a dissertation, based on your boundless NBA rules expertise, on the relevant rules at play in this situation. Please distinguish from 1st throw and 2nd throw, if you please.

OMG the accommodating horror of changing the mechanic of administering a FT.

Thanks but no thanks. I'll take the way the NBA chose to deal with it over having the L walk up the FT line and place the ball down.....and then have the C initiate a count.

Well if you wanted to put the ball on the floor and start a count, having the C administer the free throw makes it easier to do that too.

Perhaps, however the distance traveled to the FT line by the C to do that is basically the same as the L.:p

All irrelevant. You don't use resumption of play on a FT, its a delay of game if anything.

That is news to me. Citation?

After a TO, ROP is used for both.

Not after a TO, if A1 isn't at the spot for a throw-in, put the ball on the floor. If A1 is not available for a FT, it's a T. (And, yes, ther's plenty of game management to do before we get to either of those results, of course)

You do if it’s after a timeout or intermission (NFHS).

First off, I did look, and don't deny that I'm incorrect. Rules clearly state that you do use ROP after a timeout or intermission. Now all that said, why? Can you (or anyone else) help clarify this for me? Why place the ball on the ground and begin the count? And the reason I ask is because the way I read and interpret the rules, the free thrower is not allowed to be outside of the semicircle until after the release (9-1-3-e), so the moment you place the ball on the floor (at the thrower's disposal), then they are simultaneously violating, and as this is an offensive violation, the ball should immediately become dead. I don't see a provision in the rules that allows the shooter to enter the semicircle and attempt the shot. What am I missing?

Timeout ...
 

NFHS: Request, and be granted, a timeout will avoid a ten second violation.

True, but I'll go back to the original quandary, this should be considered an immediate violation on the shooter the moment it is at his disposal, so I don't know how you can call a timeout if a violation would occur first.

In the ROP situation, the violations for not filling the required spots (for both teams) are changed from being a T to being a potential FT violation for both teams. There isn't so much as rule that states so but for the ROP procedure to make any sense, it has to be that way and I believe there are case plays clarifying that.

If the defense isn't in the lower spaces, you give the shooter the ball. If the shooter misses, a violation is called and the shooter gets a new shot. If it were not for the ROP procedure, that would be a technical fall as soon as the defense doesn't take the spot. Likewise, if the shooting team isn't coming out, you put the ball on the FT line and start the 10 count. At any other time it would be a T for the shooter to not come to the line.

Avoiding the need to call a T makes sense, and a delayed violation for the defenders also makes sense if they are not on the block in time. But I still can't justify the ball on the floor and count for the shooter. (And yes, I guess I can justify it by saying its in the rule book, but I don't see how you can set aside the lane violation here.) You had referenced a case play, and I'm sure it was from years ago, but if anyone can find one, I'd appreciate it. Again the only part I can't resolve is if the shooter himself is not there in time, and why that isn't an immediate violation for not being in the semi-circle.

From the 2011-12 book (the numbers may have changed). It is similar, but not quite the same. It does hint at the thrower not being in the semicircle. The only way that happens is if you put the ball at the thrower's disposal without the thrower being there. The only time that can happen is after a timeout.

Fair enough. Appreciate you finding that-