Thoughts on this travel call

[bob jenkins]

Originally Posted by ballgame99

On the OP play, A1 catches the ball with left foot down, jumps off of it, lands with both, then pivots on his right foot, then takes off with a really small shuffle of the right foot. If I'm reading you right, the travel is because his jump stop would mean that both of his feet on the landing are his pivot. So when he pivots on the right (ie picks up the left and puts it back down) that equals a travel?

See post #2

[ballgame99]

I went back and looked at 4-44, and there it is in black and white; the pivot foot is not established until both feet have hit the floor. So the player in the OP is allowed to jump off his one foot and make a jump stop. This is the reason I still participate in this forum, I've been around the game for 30 years, and reffed for 7, and learned something I didn't know today. Thanks guys.