2-10 Question
 

SITUATION: A1 is fouled by B1. The calling official thinks its Team B's 7th team foul and signals for A1 to shoot 1-and-1. It is in fact Team B's 6th team foul. A1 shoots the first FT and misses. B2 gets the rebound, dribbles into Team B's front court near his bench and Team B's coach calls a timeout. During the timeout, the officials recognize their error.

Questions:
1. Is the timeout charged to Team B?
2. Where and how is play resumed? (and why?)

Charge the TO to B.

Since there has been a change of possession, B will inbound at the spot nearest to where the ball was when the TO was granted.

A1's FT is "canceled," but since nothing occurred during it, that's just housekeeping.

That's my take anyway.

That's the correct answer with one technical quibble. B isn't inbounding the ball due to the change of possession, they are inbounding because that is the point of interruption. Change of possession only matters when awarding merited free throws.

Agree with Welpe but would add one thing. If B called the TO to rectify the error---and there's some evidence that he called it for that purpose such as-he told scorer or is saying he shouldn't have shot FTs or something, then he is not charged with the TO.

There was an error that was fixed during his timeout but i think he needs to be calling the TO for that reason to avoid it being charged to him. If he doesn't have a clue about the error, calls timeout and then the scorers say hey…only 6 fouls, TO remains charged to him.

Good point. I agree.

Coach was oblivious to the CE situation. His request was not to appeal that. The officials discovered the error during the timeout.
My off-the-top-of-the-head response when this was asked of me would've been to give Team A a throw-in as a result of the sixth foul and resume play from there. I'd imagine I wouldn't have been the only one making that mistake.
Thanx for input thus far.

I agree with the reasoning behind wiping the FTA, but is there rule book explanation for how play resumes? (Yes POE, but ... )

Coach A is going to want to know why he got screwed for simply following orders (shooting the FTA) and having the CE caught in the allowable time frame. And now he doesn't even get a throw-in after being fouled? (play along here — you know this is how it would go down.)

It's not as if a throw-in had ended and couldn't be corrected. A throw-in had never been started. So why not revert to the error and give A the throw-in? (Have to give Coach A an answer ...)

Just give him the rule and get the ball in play. The reality (that I wouldn't mention) is that if his player had made the FT, he'd be getting the next throw-in when we wiped the FTA.

If he pushes too hard, let him know he can petition for a change to the rules that are written by (for the most part) coaches and ADs.

Oh, and the RB explanation is that B's rebound is considered a change of possession for purposes of the rule (I don't think it should be, but it is in the case play, I believe.)

[QUOTE=Adam;994476]Oh, and the RB explanation is that B's rebound is considered a change of possession for purposes of the rule (I don't think it should be, but it is in the case play, I

The change of possession deals with failure to award merited FT as Welp said. This is awarding an UN merited FT. POI rules.

Amesman, correctable errors are bad. If they happen, someone is going to get screwed. Freddy, your original thought, giving A the ball, is fair, reasonable and seems like the right thing to do. Because of that, you clearly should have realized it was wrong...:(. Correctable errors always screw one team....,