Iowa @ Indiana Flagrant Foul Review
 

What do you think?

<iframe width="560" height="315" src="https://www.youtube.com/embed/QsbkKT7LeHQ" frameborder="0" allowfullscreen></iframe>

Peace

Just a common foul, imo.

I don't see a flagrant. The defender was playing the ball the best he could from his angle and, I think, actually hit the ball with his hand. Also, he wasn't looking at the player (which I think he would have been doing if he had any intent to run into him), he was looking at the ball.

I'm a new guy, but I would have a hard personal foul here. Even though B1 missed the ball, it would be hard to prove that he wasn't making a play at the ball.

common foul.

Second Review later in the half.
 

What do you have here?

<iframe width="560" height="315" src="https://www.youtube.com/embed/k5yVpXkqxrI" frameborder="0" allowfullscreen></iframe>

Peace

HS=IPF
College = FF1

I'd suggest to veer away from this thinking. It's blatantly wrong to say a foul isn't intentional because the player made a play for the ball, even if the ball is the first contact made.

Taking a player, especially an airborne shooter, forcefully to the floor is almost an automatic intentional foul. Even if there was a blocked shot first.

1st play = common foul
2nd play = Intentional/Flagrant 1

Yep.

In the first video, I would likely have IPF in real time (HS) but in slo mo, it's not really that bad. Given thread title, I assume it was ruled a FF1 by the officials?

On the 2nd video pretty obvious they got that correct. Clearly trying to negate Ferells advantageous position on that grab of off arm

2nd video...double dribble. Someone had to say it.

I was wondering how long it was going to take someone to say this. ;)

Peace

As someone who doesn't officiate basketball, what's the proper administration if the double dribble is called there? If it was a common foul I would guess that it would be ignored. But is the FF1 ignored, too? Or would he still get to shoot for it?

If a violation or another foul took place on this play, the play would be dead. And the only way you could call a foul if the action continued was intentional or flagrant in nature. If the whistle was blown I would bet all the players would have stopped on some level. At best I think nothing more would be called if there was a violation called.

Peace

It would be nothing in this case because it was only an FF1 due to neutralizing an obvious advantageous position. If the ball is dead, the position no longer has an advantage. If it were a FF due to excessive contact, it would stand and become a technical foul for dead ball contact.

yes, it was....or a carry (same thing). Either way, if the play had continued he may have improved his advantageous position with that move party by freezing the other defenders that had a chance to defend him.