Pitch hits R3, stealing home [FED]
 

Need some opinions on this play.

2 outs. 2 strikes on the batter. R3 gets a great jump and is attempting to steal home on the pitch. The pitch hits the runner as he slides safely across the plate. The pitch would have been a strike but it never crossed the plate.

Does the run score?

No. It's right in the book, I think.

edit: 6.05(n):With two out, a runner on third base, and two strikes on the batter, the runner
attempts to steal home base on a legal pitch and the ball touches the runner in the
batter’s strike zone. The umpire shall call “Strike Three,” the batter is out and the
run shall not count; before two are out, the umpire shall call “Strike Three,” the ball
is dead, and the run counts.

Adding to Bob's statement...

the geometry is wrong in the OP. if the pitch struck the runner "as he's sliding across home plate", and the pitch would have been in the strike zone, then it MUST have been over the plate (at least a little) before striking the runner.

And if it wasn't, because the runner was slightly to the left of the plate... how are you going to tell that from where PU stands?

Just call the strike - don't pick up that end of the stick.

Just curious why it is a dead ball at this point and not a dropped third strike? It is not a dead ball when throw strikes a runner stealing any other base.

Becasue this is a pitch and not a throw.

Because there is a rule covering this specifically