This situation may have been discussed before but I could not find it in a search.

Ruuner on second (R2) and the pitcher comes to a set position. R2 starts to steal third before the pitcher begins his delivery. The pitcher steps towards third and throws to the 3B. R2 is now in a run down between second and third.

Did the pitcher balk? The rule book says that the pitcher can throw to an unoccupied base to make a play. The offensive coach argued that the pitcher should have disengaged the rubber before throwing to third base. Our crew said no. We said he was making a play at third. Did we get it right or did we kick it?

Jay

It's the right call, provided the umpires don't determine that the runner was bluffing.

Since you didn't think the player was bluffing, it's not a balk. Ask the manager how much clearer the phrase "except for the purpose of making a play" needs to be?

Rich

I'm with Rich on this one, and I'd say you got it right. What the umpire has to be concerned with in such cases is whether or not R2 was making a legitimate attempt to advance. If he was only bluffing, then you've got your balk. If not, then you've got your possible play at third.

In your case, the proof was in the pudding - or rather the "pickle"! :D

If R2 was only bluffing then he wouldn't have been caught in that run down. Good call, blue!

Hope this helps

Cheers