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-   -   LL Rules - batted ball contacts runner (https://forum.officiating.com/baseball/95349-ll-rules-batted-ball-contacts-runner.html)

MD Longhorn Mon Jun 24, 2013 09:30am

LL Rules - batted ball contacts runner
 
Posting here for clarification - Umpire who made the call on this disagrees with me. Little League rules.

R1 on first, bouncing ball goes untouched over the pitcher (who would have had a play if he'd timed his jump better), bounces again and hits R1 in front of the second baseman, who was in position to field the ball. Ruling?

Rich Ives Mon Jun 24, 2013 09:47am

Quote:

Originally Posted by MD Longhorn (Post 898300)
Posting here for clarification - Umpire who made the call on this disagrees with me. Little League rules.

R1 on first, bouncing ball goes untouched over the pitcher (who would have had a play if he'd timed his jump better), bounces again and hits R1 in front of the second baseman, who was in position to field the ball. Ruling?

Runner is out.

Ball is dead.

BR to 1B

7.08-- Any runner is out when -

(f) Touched by a fair ball in fair territory before the ball has touched or passed an infielder. The ball is dead and no runner may score, no runners advance, except runners forced to advance;
EXCEPTION: If a runner is touching a base when touched by an Infield Fly, that runner is not out, although the batter is out.
NOTE 1: If a runner is touched by an Infield Fly when not touching a base, both the runner and batter are out.
NOTE 2: If two runners are touched by the same fair ball, only the first one is out because the ball is instantly dead.

bob jenkins Mon Jun 24, 2013 09:49am

I agree with Rich.

MD Longhorn Mon Jun 24, 2013 09:53am

So do I. However, when presented with this rule, the umpire pointed out that the ball HAD passed an infielder - the pitcher.

Rich Ives Mon Jun 24, 2013 10:13am

Quote:

Originally Posted by MD Longhorn (Post 898305)
So do I. However, when presented with this rule, the umpire pointed out that the ball HAD passed an infielder - the pitcher.

1) "Passed" means within reach. He didn't reach it.

2) It doesn't matter anyhow because the runner was not immediately behind the "infielder".

3) Which really doesn't matter because the pitcher doesn't count as an infielder for this rule - unless he deflects the ball.

But your guy isn't going to believe this anyhow.

MD Longhorn Mon Jun 24, 2013 10:43am

Quote:

Originally Posted by Rich Ives (Post 898307)
1) "Passed" means within reach. He didn't reach it.

2) It doesn't matter anyhow because the runner was not immediately behind the "infielder".

3) Which really doesn't matter because the pitcher doesn't count as an infielder for this rule - unless he deflects the ball.

But your guy isn't going to believe this anyhow.

I don't want you to get the impression this umpire is an idiot. He's not. This situation bothered him enough to go digging in the book, and when he, independently, found rules to back up what he thought was right, he asked me about it.

I told him (3) - but could not back it up using the LL book (at least not in the 10 minutes I had with him). I mentioned (2) as well with similar results. I'm not sure I agree with you on (1). He DIDN'T reach it, but not because it was not within reach - just bad timing.

I confess that my knowledge of all the other rulesets is far better than my knowledge of LL rules (I only work them 1 week a year - my knowledge of their rules is mostly from this forum, tbh). In every other ruleset I could point you to the exact rule that leads you to (2) or (3). Just wondering how to show that to him in the LL book.

Rita C Mon Jun 24, 2013 11:50am

Quote:

Originally Posted by MD Longhorn (Post 898311)
I don't want you to get the impression this umpire is an idiot. He's not. This situation bothered him enough to go digging in the book, and when he, independently, found rules to back up what he thought was right, he asked me about it.

I told him (3) - but could not back it up using the LL book (at least not in the 10 minutes I had with him). I mentioned (2) as well with similar results. I'm not sure I agree with you on (1). He DIDN'T reach it, but not because it was not within reach - just bad timing.

I confess that my knowledge of all the other rulesets is far better than my knowledge of LL rules (I only work them 1 week a year - my knowledge of their rules is mostly from this forum, tbh). In every other ruleset I could point you to the exact rule that leads you to (2) or (3). Just wondering how to show that to him in the LL book.

He needs Rule 5.09 where it brings up the pitcher exception.

Rita

legend Thu Jun 27, 2013 10:08pm

It sounds like the Issue is with the interpretation of the word "passed" Imo the word would imply that it was/is a ball that a fielder had a play on but "booted" it. In the O.P. it sounds like there was no play available weather its poor timing or not, no play is no play. I guess (w/o seeing the play) that the p.u. could use his/her judgement to say that the pitcher should have made a play and that would justify voiding the b.r. being called out.

Forest Ump Thu Jun 27, 2013 10:46pm

It's really a matter of common sense. Why would you have that rule since theoretically every ball would pass the pitcher. Nobody would ever be out by his thinking.

gotblue? Fri Jun 28, 2013 01:56am

Quote:

Originally Posted by legend (Post 898696)
It sounds like the Issue is with the interpretation of the word "passed" Imo the word would imply that it was/is a ball that a fielder had a play on but "booted" it. In the O.P. it sounds like there was no play available weather its poor timing or not, no play is no play. I guess (w/o seeing the play) that the p.u. could use his/her judgement to say that the pitcher should have made a play and that would justify voiding the b.r. being called out.

Except that the rule says that the runner is not out only if the ball passes an infielder with the runner immediately behind the fielder and no other infielder can make a play on the ball. For example, a ball hit between the 3B and SS, and the ball passes 3B and then hits the runner (R2 in this case). If the SS still can make a play on the ball, then the ball passing 3B and hitting the runner, the runner would still be out if it is judged that the SS still had a play on the ball.

Without having seen your play, it sounds like 2B still had a play on the ball, so the exemption for the runner would not apply, even if the pitcher is considered to be an infielder. R1 is out. No?

CT1 Fri Jun 28, 2013 05:51am

Why is this so hard to understand? The pitcher is not considered an infielder for the purposes of this rule. No judgment necessary.

bob jenkins Fri Jun 28, 2013 06:46am

Quote:

Originally Posted by CT1 (Post 898709)
Why is this so hard to understand? The pitcher is not considered an infielder for the purposes of this rule. No judgment necessary.

Mybe a rules reference / cite would help.

MD Longhorn Fri Jun 28, 2013 08:08am

Quote:

Originally Posted by CT1 (Post 898709)
Why is this so hard to understand? The pitcher is not considered an infielder for the purposes of this rule. No judgment necessary.

I agree... and I can prove it in most rulesets. I'm having trouble proving it with just the LL book.

CT1 Fri Jun 28, 2013 10:00am

Quote:

Originally Posted by MD Longhorn (Post 898726)
I agree... and I can prove it in most rulesets. I'm having trouble proving it with just the LL book.

I haven't worked LL in a thousand years, so I don't have a book. When I did that level, they used modified OBR. If there was no modification, the OBR rule stood.

I can't imagine that LL rules would differ in this area, but I'm willing to be proved wrong.

umpjim Fri Jun 28, 2013 12:23pm

Rita posted the cite: 5.09(f) both in OBR and LLGB. Using the "did not pass rationalization" would not allow you to get an out in OBR on a base hit grounder between two infielders that passed them and hit a runner. No string theory in OBR. FED is different.


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