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LL Rules - batted ball contacts runner
Posting here for clarification - Umpire who made the call on this disagrees with me. Little League rules.
R1 on first, bouncing ball goes untouched over the pitcher (who would have had a play if he'd timed his jump better), bounces again and hits R1 in front of the second baseman, who was in position to field the ball. Ruling? |
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Ball is dead. BR to 1B 7.08-- Any runner is out when - (f) Touched by a fair ball in fair territory before the ball has touched or passed an infielder. The ball is dead and no runner may score, no runners advance, except runners forced to advance; EXCEPTION: If a runner is touching a base when touched by an Infield Fly, that runner is not out, although the batter is out. NOTE 1: If a runner is touched by an Infield Fly when not touching a base, both the runner and batter are out. NOTE 2: If two runners are touched by the same fair ball, only the first one is out because the ball is instantly dead. |
I agree with Rich.
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So do I. However, when presented with this rule, the umpire pointed out that the ball HAD passed an infielder - the pitcher.
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2) It doesn't matter anyhow because the runner was not immediately behind the "infielder". 3) Which really doesn't matter because the pitcher doesn't count as an infielder for this rule - unless he deflects the ball. But your guy isn't going to believe this anyhow. |
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I told him (3) - but could not back it up using the LL book (at least not in the 10 minutes I had with him). I mentioned (2) as well with similar results. I'm not sure I agree with you on (1). He DIDN'T reach it, but not because it was not within reach - just bad timing. I confess that my knowledge of all the other rulesets is far better than my knowledge of LL rules (I only work them 1 week a year - my knowledge of their rules is mostly from this forum, tbh). In every other ruleset I could point you to the exact rule that leads you to (2) or (3). Just wondering how to show that to him in the LL book. |
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Rita |
It sounds like the Issue is with the interpretation of the word "passed" Imo the word would imply that it was/is a ball that a fielder had a play on but "booted" it. In the O.P. it sounds like there was no play available weather its poor timing or not, no play is no play. I guess (w/o seeing the play) that the p.u. could use his/her judgement to say that the pitcher should have made a play and that would justify voiding the b.r. being called out.
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It's really a matter of common sense. Why would you have that rule since theoretically every ball would pass the pitcher. Nobody would ever be out by his thinking.
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Without having seen your play, it sounds like 2B still had a play on the ball, so the exemption for the runner would not apply, even if the pitcher is considered to be an infielder. R1 is out. No? |
Why is this so hard to understand? The pitcher is not considered an infielder for the purposes of this rule. No judgment necessary.
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I can't imagine that LL rules would differ in this area, but I'm willing to be proved wrong. |
Rita posted the cite: 5.09(f) both in OBR and LLGB. Using the "did not pass rationalization" would not allow you to get an out in OBR on a base hit grounder between two infielders that passed them and hit a runner. No string theory in OBR. FED is different.
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