throwing to unoccupied base [OBR]
 

Under OBR 8.05 it says:

With a runner on first base the pitcher may make a complete turn, without hesitating toward first, and throw to second. This is not to be interpreted as throwing to an unoccupied base.

A "complete turn", to me, is a counter-clockwise turn toward 1st that continues on toward 2nd.

Can a pitcher, with only a runner at 1st, simply spin (counter-clockwise), without stopping, and throw the ball to 2nd - even if the runner on 1st is not advancing? There is no mention of the requirement for the runner to be advancing for this to be legal.

This just seems goofy.

I've never seen it done.

I'm clearly misunderstanding this.

Though it does not specify, I believe that this rule comment is for the case where R1 is advancing and F1 is throwing ahead on the runner, making a play on him. I would balk F1 in this sitch if R1 was not trying to advance/steal 2B.

This comment is the meely mouth section of OBR that says F1's intent should govern when considering a balk. I think this is the most misunderstood comment in OBR. Because of this comment, some think that you should balk F1 whenever he tries to deceive a runner. I can't remember a time when I considered F1's intent to deceive. If F1 is doing his job, he is trying to deceive EVERY TIME.

The pitcher can NOT throw to second if the runner is not advancing (or in FeED has not feinted an advance).

The comment to to address those who would (inocrrectly) call a balk on this move (when the runner is advancing) because F1's first move was to first and he didn't throw there.

Under OBR F1 may throw to an unoccupied base for the purpose of making a play on the runner. If the runner bluffs we have a balk. This is the interp found in MLBUM. Yes, I'm 100%.