So..lol..I am trying to keep a straight face as I say this...you think that MLB put this in the rule book..let me break this description by MLB down.

A pitcher steps toward third...doesn't take his foot off the rubber (according to you) and then somehow with one foot on the rubber, one foot on the third base side of the mound attempts to throw to first...

This practice was such an issue that MLB felt of all the rules in the book, this one needed the example put in the book? Get the F out of here if you believe that...

Right. It's the move you make when you want to fake out your dog when you're throwing the tennis ball, or when you're having fun with your 7 year olds in the back yard.

I will add you to the camp that has no idea what he is talking about...

By the way I am just as veteran as most people on this board...

Yes, that is exactly what the rule is for. In FED, the pitcher doesn't have to disengage with his pivot foot. In OBR/NCAA he does have to.

What levels do you work?

So you are the only one that is correct and everyone else is wrong?

Doesn't sound like it

Here is what everyone is missing I think...

"it is obviously an attempt to deceive the runner at first base, and in such a move it is practically impossible to step directly toward first base before the throw to first base, and such a move shall be called a balk".

Look I don't know how you guys don't see this and I don't care really. It isn't a rule anymore anyway. The only reason I am so adamant on this is because of a discussion last year with the MLB umpire dad I was talking about earlier. This is exactly how his son explained it to him and how he explained it to me. The deception of the play is what is the balk...when you step toward third, then spin on that front foot to throw to first the deception of the play EVEN THOUGH YOUR FOOT HAS DISENGAGED THE RUBBER is what makes the move a balk. Now if you step towards 3rd, disengage, turn and STEP towards first it isnt a balk. Like I said this is an intrepretation straight from an MLB umpire. You all can take it or leave it I don't care.

Yes

And keep up with your blissful ignorance. Does it not make you wonder why you're the only one on here who interprets the rule this way?

If it was a problem, surely you can find video on MLB.com that shows this being called a balk, right?

I could say I talked to anyone and they told me anything. Doesn't make it correct.

Seriously - if you're so completely right in the face of everyone else telling you otherwise - what do you think they meant by this last statement.

But sure, you're right, and everyone else is wrong. Everyone. OK. Nice ego there.

BTW - anecdotes about something that a supposed MLB umpire's son might have said are rather meaningless.

Like I said..doesn't matter because the rule is changed this year so you guys can't miss it anymore.

I still have a hard time believeing that MLB would put an example of a play in the rule book that is impossible to perform...but hey keep on believing.

The whole world thinks you are the one that has been missing the call.

So tell me, are you the kind of guy that, after calling a balk, is going to give the offense the choice of the penalty or the result of the play?

I'll remember that the next time someone uses licorice or paraffin to deface a baseball.

You could be the most senior person this board, the internet, and the entire sport has ever seen, but you are not correct.

In OBR if a pitcher balks but the batter reaches first and all other runners advance at least one base then the balk is ignored.

What you are continuing to miss MD is the decpetion in the move that makes it a balk...Even if you have disengaged the rubber when you spin on the front foot and fail to step ahead of the throw to first it is a balk.