Pitcher accidentally drops ball (FED)
 

Prior to coming set, and while still in the process of taking the signal from the catcher, the pitcher accidentally drops the ball and it does cross the foul line.

A strict reading of FED 6-2-4a would indicate that this is not a balk:

It's a balk if ...

... any feinting toward the batter or first base, or any dropping of the ball (even though accidental) and the ball does not cross the foul line (6-1-4).

Notice the reference to FED 6-1-4. So, what does that say?

FED 6-1-4

... a pitch dropped during delivery and which crosses a foul line shall be called a ball. Otherwise, it will be called a no pitch.

It would seem to me that a dropped ball, while in contact with the rubber and while still getting the signal from the catcher, does not constitute "during delivery" as described in FED 6-1-4.

I think the phrase in FED 6-1-4 where it says "Otherwise (i.e. the ball does not cross the foul line), it will be called a no pitch" is intended for if a delivery does not cross a foul line.

If the pitcher, while in contact with the rubber simply drops the ball and, for some inexplicable reason, it rolls across the foul line (maybe the ball hits his foot and deflects) - would that be a balk or a "no pitch"? For that matter, what if if doesn't cross the foul line in that same circumstance?

Dave,

Under FED, if the pitcher drops the ball after he has (intentionally) engaged the rubber with one or more runners on base, it is a balk. Even if he's just getting his signs.

With no runners on base, if he drops the ball before initiating his delivery, I've got no pitch regardless of where the ball ends up. If during his delivery, ball if it crosses a foul line, no pitch otherwise.

JM

Dave - Remember that in FED, once the pitcher intentionaly engages the rubber, he is subject to all of the pitching rules.

Unless he is taking his sign off the rubber. Go figure?

Also, it's a violation to make any movement, normally associated with his delivery, while NOT engaged with the rubber.

So, what are you saying?

With no runners on base and the pitcher in contact with the rubber, if he drops the ball while still taking the sign from the catcher (i.e. not during the delivery), whether or not the ball crosses the foul line - he should be charged with a "ball" for a pitching violation?

FED is simple. Once the pitcher intentionally comes in contact with the rubber, the following penalties are enforced for a dropped ball (whether pitched or dropped from the hand or glove):

No runners; ball crosses the foul line: a ball is added to the count.
No runners; ball DOES NOT cross the foul line: no pitch.
Runners; ball crosses the foul line: a ball is added to the count.
Runners; ball DOES NOT cross the foul line: balk.

You people are hopeless!

Every year one of you come out with a simple question, you get your answer(s) and then you argue with everyone.

Absolutely hopeless!

i'm done here.

Amen Ozzy.

If pitcher drops the ball and it rolls across the foul line without without being touched all runners have already moved up at least one base.

Never seen it happen.

xtreamump
 

Long live Ozzy

Cheer leading is another site.

That is NEVER an answer to an umpire question, "I've never seen it happen."

Sometimes questions are constructed, not as a practical matter, but as an academic tool for understanding a rule.

So, if something unusual EVER happens in a game - something you've NEVER seen before - your ruling cannot be, "I've never seen that happen."

What if an outfielder, with runners on base and after fielding a fair ball that is hit into the corner of the field, picks it up and, instead of returning it to infield, PURPOSELY heaves it into the stands? I don't think I've ever seen that before, either. And yet, there IS a rule that applies for that.

Happened in a CWS game once. Fielder thought the ball was foul, flipped it to a fan in the stands. Was the impetus for an NCAA rules change, IIRC.

That wasn't on purpose. That was a brain fart.