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-   -   Grand Slam ends the game? (https://forum.officiating.com/baseball/8662-grand-slam-ends-game.html)

TriggerMN Fri May 16, 2003 03:05pm

I read a similar topic, so I figured I'd post and see if we did it the right way.

NFHS rules, tie score, bases loaded bottom of 7th, 1 out. Batter hits a home run. Runner on 3rd touches home. Runners on 2nd and 1st DO NOT touch next base, just simply run off the field. Batter rounds the bases.

What we did: we waited to see if the defensive team wanted to appeal. Throw the pitcher a ball, he takes the rubber, steps off, then throws to third for a force, then on to second for a force. 3 outs, no runs score. However, the defensive team left the field, and we called it a single, and a one run victory for the home team.

The ball is dead once it goes over the fence. Did we do right? Should the runners on 1st and 2nd have been called out for leaving the baseline? Can the defensive team appeal? What is the correct procedure for handling this situation?

woolnojg Fri May 16, 2003 03:49pm

Okay.
Runner from 3rd touches home.
Runners from 1st & 2nd abandon efforts to advance.
Batter advances to 1st.
Did runners from 1st & 2nd obviously abandon (left field of play) prior to the touch of the plate by runner from 3rd? If not, then run counts, no force outs, no appeals, batter has a single. No problems, go home, collect check or vice versa.

David B Fri May 16, 2003 04:09pm

See ya later
 
HR, and R3 touches home, I'm heading to the truck.

If they wanted to appeal, in FED rules, they don't have to do anything but verbal appeal.

But since the defense left the field and the umpires left the field there can be no appeal.

To answer your questions:

<b>The ball is dead once it goes over the fence. Did we do right? </b>

I would have headed to the fence.

<b>Should the runners on 1st and 2nd have been called out for leaving the baseline? </b>

No, the ball is dead.

<b>Can the defensive team appeal? </b>

Yes, but they have to do it before leaving the diamond.

<b>What is the correct procedure for handling this situation?</b>

Since the BR touched and R3 touched, the run counts, so I would just tell the coach that and then we don't have to worry about the appeals etc.,

Thanks
David

[Edited by David B on May 16th, 2003 at 04:14 PM]

thumpferee Mon May 19, 2003 07:42am

Quote:

Originally posted by TriggerMN
I read a similar topic, so I figured I'd post and see if we did it the right way.

NFHS rules, tie score, bases loaded bottom of 7th, 1 out. Batter hits a home run. Runner on 3rd touches home. Runners on 2nd and 1st DO NOT touch next base, just simply run off the field. Batter rounds the bases.

What we did: we waited to see if the defensive team wanted to appeal. Throw the pitcher a ball, he takes the rubber, steps off, then throws to third for a force, then on to second for a force. 3 outs, no runs score. However, the defensive team left the field, and we called it a single, and a one run victory for the home team.

The ball is dead once it goes over the fence. Did we do right? Should the runners on 1st and 2nd have been called out for leaving the baseline? Can the defensive team appeal? What is the correct procedure for handling this situation?

If I'm not mistaken, as long as Runner on third touches home, and Batter touches 1st, it is a legal advance, game over.


bob jenkins Mon May 19, 2003 09:29am

Quote:

Originally posted by thumpferee

If I'm not mistaken, as long as Runner on third touches home, and Batter touches 1st, it is a legal advance, game over.


That's the OBR rule -- and it might (there's controversey over the meaning of "any other play") only apply on an "award" -- e.g., walk, not on a hit.

THe post specified NFHS rules -- where all (forced) runners must touch the advance base.

thumpferee Mon May 19, 2003 12:19pm

Quote:

Originally posted by bob jenkins
Quote:

Originally posted by thumpferee

If I'm not mistaken, as long as Runner on third touches home, and Batter touches 1st, it is a legal advance, game over.


That's the OBR rule -- and it might (there's controversey over the meaning of "any other play") only apply on an "award" -- e.g., walk, not on a hit.

THe post specified NFHS rules -- where all (forced) runners must touch the advance base.

Bob,

Can you give the case number or rule where you got your info for NFHS?

THe post specified NFHS rules -- where all (forced) runners must touch the advance base. [/B][/QUOTE]


I'm looking at FED Rule 9.1 note 2
says: is the result of a base on balls, hit batter, or any other play with the bases loaded which forces the runner on third base to advance,etc...

It specifically states a PLAY! A home-run to end the game is a play?

I would take "any other play" to mean a balk, an obstruction, as well as hit batter, or a walk.


bob jenkins Mon May 19, 2003 01:32pm

Quote:

Originally posted by thumpferee
Quote:

Originally posted by bob jenkins
Quote:

Originally posted by thumpferee

If I'm not mistaken, as long as Runner on third touches home, and Batter touches 1st, it is a legal advance, game over.


That's the OBR rule -- and it might (there's controversey over the meaning of "any other play") only apply on an "award" -- e.g., walk, not on a hit.

THe post specified NFHS rules -- where all (forced) runners must touch the advance base.

Bob,

Can you give the case number or rule where you got your info for NFHS?

THe post specified NFHS rules -- where all (forced) runners must touch the advance base.


I'm looking at FED Rule 9.1 note 2
says: is the result of a base on balls, hit batter, or any other play with the bases loaded which forces the runner on third base to advance,etc...

It specifically states a PLAY! A home-run to end the game is a play?

I would take "any other play" to mean a balk, an obstruction, as well as hit batter, or a walk.


I'm confused as heck.

First you said "only BR and R3 need advance." (paraphrased)

Then, you point to FED 9-1-1 NOte 2 where it clearly states "... the umpire shall not declare the game over until all runners have advanced to the next base."

See -- that was my point -- you gave an OBR ruling to a FED question. Now you're questioning my FED ruling by citing the rule that supports my interpretation.

Further, you use the FED wording to argue the questioning I gave for the OBR wording (even though the same phrase is used in both).

Help!!!

thumpferee Mon May 19, 2003 02:14pm

Is it just me Bob, or you just like busting my balls?

I simply stated an opinion as did the other two posters on this thread. I simply asked you where you got the ruling from, thinking you may have been referring to another rule or case other than the rule 9.1.1 whick I stated. I saw nothing where it stated on a hit ball, or homerun where "all (forced) runners must touch the advance base. " as you put it.

Also, you say:

"Further, you use the FED wording to argue the questioning I gave for the OBR wording (even though the same phrase is used in both)."

My question was how the phrase is used in both OBR and FED, but the rulings are different????

I was asking where you found the defining case that differenciated the NFHS RULE from OBR RULE.

But nevermind now, you've caused me to lose interrest!

PS: I commented on another thread named "two balls in the field" if you want to go critizize that too!



[Edited by thumpferee on May 19th, 2003 at 02:17 PM]

Huskerblue Mon May 19, 2003 03:02pm

Regardless of what the rule says: Be ready for a s#*thouse if you don't score the run

bob jenkins Tue May 20, 2003 07:26am

Quote:

Originally posted by thumpferee
Is it just me Bob, or you just like busting my balls?


[Edited by thumpferee on May 19th, 2003 at 02:17 PM]

I can't answer the first part, but the second is not true.

I'm just trying to give accurate answers to the questions posed.

The original situation was (all sections paraphrased):

Under NFHS rules, who must advance on a game winning hit?

You responded, "R3 and BR" and said you "might be mistaken."

I pointed out that you're ruling *might* be right under OBR (depending on the meaning of "any other play"*), (ref: 4.09(b)), but was clearly wrong under FED, where all runners must advance (ref: 9-1-1 Note 2).

Since I didn't give the reference in my answer, you asked for it -- but you also provided it in your post. So I was confused -- did you read it differently that I did (all runners must advance)?

That's it -- no "ball busting" involved.

* "Any other play" -- under OBR, some read this as "on an award, there's no sense waiting around for the inevitable since the defense can't make a play anyway, so we'll just require BR and R3 to advance. But, on a hit, we'll require all runners to advane or be liable to be called out for abandonment, and maybe appealed out for missing a base."

Other read it as " 'any other play' means just that -- ANY play -- we'll only require R3 and BR to advance no matter what."

I'd guess J/R and / or JEA might have some insight on that.


DownTownTonyBrown Tue May 20, 2003 12:33pm

FED rules, and all rules, R3 must advance to score the run (home team is now ahead); BR must advance to 1st to complete the first portion of his advancement to qualify as a hit. Other runners are in a force situation, YES, but they may advance at any pace and in any direction they desire. The game is over at the time that the BR has touched 1st and R3 has scored the winning run.


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