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Old Wed Apr 16, 2003, 02:23pm
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Had this happen in a HS varsity game last night.

Bases loaded with 1 out. The batter hits a comebacker to the pitcher who throws home to get the force. As the catcher is wheeling to make a throw to 1st, the runner from 3rd slides in and takes out the feet of the catcher, who is then unable to make the throw.

I'm not sure what the intent of the runner was as I was a ways off.(Maybe that doesn't matter)

The plate ump called nothing.(Except the force out)

I might have called interference seeing as how the runner was already declared out and he took away an opportunity from the defense.

Opinions? Facts?
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Old Wed Apr 16, 2003, 02:46pm
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In all codes, if the slide was legal and directly to the plate, you've got nothing.

That's just baseball.
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Old Thu Apr 17, 2003, 10:13am
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But, take into consideration where the catcher was positioned at when he was attempting to throw to 1B. If the catcher was standing on the 1B side of the plate when contact was made, even though the runner's slide was directly towards the base, this is interference because contact was made past the base.
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Old Thu Apr 17, 2003, 10:30am
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I suppose have to get a better description of the developed play. But if the catcher remained on home plate to make the throw shame on him for not coming out to either side of the runner going to first to make the throw without hitting the runner.
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Old Thu Apr 17, 2003, 10:31am
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If F2 was touching home plate (even though on the front or 1B edge) when the runner slid in, then he is not "beyond the base."
If the slide was straight and direct, then it's legal. F2 would have to pull his foot an obvious distance away from home in order for this to be called interference. However, if he DID pull away, there probably would not be contact at all. Sounds like good (and legal) base running to me.
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Old Thu Apr 17, 2003, 10:56am
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Seems to me that you would apply the same standard on this play as on the double play at second. If within reach of the bag with the slide contact with the player trying to make the throw, no interference. If the runner goes out of his way to contact the runner or if the slide is very late, then I do have interference.

Gordon Raney
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Old Thu Apr 17, 2003, 11:34am
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Hold Up St.L.B. Lets not get off-base here(pun intended).
This is high school; runners have to slide directly to the bag at 2nd except to avoid a fielder. So, your answer "may" be right but I don't think the logic you are using to come to that conclusion fits.
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Old Thu Apr 17, 2003, 03:53pm
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Sorry, I do games governed by MLB rules. I still think the logic of the play at second applies. Use the Fed rule just as you would at second.
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