Did I overthink this?

[Alligator Bag]

Batter-runner hits chopper off the plate straight into the air a few feet in front of plate. Left handed pitcher fields ball with runner on third and 2 outs. BR is into grass in fair territory running to first. Pitcher fields looks to first and has to take a few steps further into fair territory to make the throw to first baseman and avoid BR.
Do I have interference?
Should the ball have made contact with BR?
If ball gets to 1st baseman and is dropped should the interference be ignored?

[just another ref]

They had this play on the Braves game on tv a few days ago.
Pitcher threw high to get over the runner's head, first baseman missed it, runner was called out.

[PeteBooth]

Originally posted by Alligator Bag

Batter-runner hits chopper off the plate straight into the air a few feet in front of plate. Left handed pitcher fields ball with runner on third and 2 outs. BR is into grass in fair territory running to first. Pitcher fields looks to first and has to take a few steps further into fair territory to make the throw to first baseman and avoid BR.
Do I have interference?
Should the ball have made contact with BR?
If ball gets to 1st baseman and is dropped should the interference be ignored?

Pitcher fields looks to first and has to take a few steps further into fair territory to make the throw to first baseman and avoid BR.
Do I have interference?

At this point you have nothing. We can't rule on what might happen or could happen. Since F1 did not make a play yet, you have nothing.

Now if F1 makes a play and B1 is out of the running lane and by being out of the lane prevents F3 from making a play then you call interference.

Also, IMO the KEY question is this:

Did the throw cause F3 not to be able to make a play or was it the runner by being out of the lane caused F3 not to make a play.

Example; Same play as yours, F1 relases the ball but it is nowhere near F3. If that's the case then i don't have interference. The fielder on this play will get the benefit of doubt since the offense is the one who erred, but if the throw is not even close then ignore the interference.

Pete Booth

[greymule]

I'd like to see a replay of the incident in the Braves' game. Just because the runner caused a bad throw is not reason enough to call him out. The question is, Did the runner interfere with the fielder taking the throw? It is not, Did the runner cause the fielder to make a wild throw? But yes, the benefit of the doubt goes to the fielder.

The fielder should play the ball normally, not try to adjust to the illegal action of the runner. I had this play a couple of years ago: BR bunted a few feet up the 1B line. F2 fielded the ball and hesitated on the throw to 1B because the runner was on the fair side of the line. The complaint, of course, was, "I couldn't throw the ball. It would have hit the runner." But until the runner interferes with the fielder taking the throw at 1B, there has been no violation.

[snrmike]

The fielder has to at least make an ATTEMPT for me to call interference. However the BR doesn't have running restrictions until they get at least halfway up the first-base line.

If the BR was only a few feet up the line, it's pretty hard to be in foul territory that close to the batter's box. On the other hand, if the BR was already 45 feet up the line and they were still clearly in foul territory that would make that BR elegible for an interference call. You pretty much have to view these calls on a play-by-play basis.

I saw that play, the pitcher double-clutched and then launched it. I thought it was a decent call, but then I've seen worse ignored.