I hang out on the basketball side of this site, but I hope you'll take a minute to settle a matter of my curiosity. I am a big baseball fan, and I like to think I know the basic rules pretty well, but I can't figure this out.

I think that if a left-handed pitcher steps toward first base while on the rubber, he must throw the ball to first base or be guilty of a balk. Do I have that much right?

If that's true, why is legal for a right-handed pitcher to step toward 3rd base, fake the throw, but then turn around and throw to 1st base?

I've seen this maneuver used a lot (even tho it almost never works), but can't figure out why it's allowed.

I'm talking about MLB. Is the rule different at the HS or NCAA level?

Thanks,

Chuck

Because the rules require <u>all pitchers</u> to throw to 1B when making a move there from the pitching rubber, while the same rules allow <u>all pitchers</u> to feint a throw to 3B from the rubber if preceded by a legal step to that base.

We don't write 'em, we just enforce 'em...........


Freix

Chuck,

I don't know the exact reason, but in my opinion it is because there is a greater chance that a runner is going to try to steal second than try to steal home. Usually teams don't even try to hold a runner on at third like they do at first, so the fake pick to first would have a greater impact on the runner than the fake pick to a runner at third.

Chuck,

Once the pitcher breaks contact with the rubber he is a fielder. Pretty hard if not impossible to fake a throw to third without breaking contact with the pitching plate. On any throw from the rubber to a base he must step towards that base.

Re "having to throw to first": yes, if he is in contact with the rubber. If the pitcher properly disengages, he can throw or not throw as he sees fit, because now he's a fielder. In this case, faking the throw to third would fulfill the properly disengages part--as long as he steps towards third.


Dan

Not for a right-hander, right? Basically, I was just wondering why it's ok for the righty to fake to a base from the rubber, and it's not ok for a lefty to fake to a base from the rubber.

Bfair's answer makes the most sense; although the rule itself seems quirky.

Thanks for the answers, guys.

Chuck

BFair has it correct. While in contact with the rubber a pitcher cannot feint to 1st (or to home) - he must throw. Other bases he is allowed to feint - FED requires that there also be a runner at those bases being feinted to (at least a reason for the feint).

I think what Chuck is asking is WHY is the rule this way? Why is it alright for a righthander to fake to third, but not for a left hander to fake to first. Everyone knows it's because the rule says so, but WHY does the rule say this. What was the reason behind it.

<b>Why is it alright for a righthander to fake to third, but not for a left hander to fake to first.</b>

gsf23: The "handedness" of the pitcher has nothing to do with it. Neither a RH or LH pitcher may feint to first from the rubber and they may both feint to third from the rubber.

Originally the pitching rules allowed feints to all bases. In the late 1800's that was changed and feints to all of the bases was made illegal. Soon after the rule was changed again to what we have today. A pitcher may now feint to any base except first base from the rubber.

The obvious purpose of not allowing a feint to first is to allow the runner to get a good lead. Remember, for the most part the balk rule is designed to encourage offense.

However, from what I have read, even the rulebook slant to offense has its limits and the rulesmakers decided that it was primarily important to provide for this at first base only.

My guess would be that they may have concluded that the mechanics of a throw to second alone allows for a decent lead there and that once the runner reaches third, he's been helped enough by the rules.

[Edited by GarthB on Apr 7th, 2003 at 01:38 PM]

[QUOTE
gsf23: The "handedness" of the pitcher has nothing to do with it. Neither a RH or LH pitcher may feint to first from the rubber and they may both feint to third from the rubber.

[/B][/QUOTE]

Yes I know that. He is not asking about the rule but WHY the rule is that way, and you answered: To allow for a better lead at first.