Bunt attempt is bunted off of the plate...
 

and goes airborne where F2 gloves the ball, in the air, behind home plate. F2, the glove, and the ball, are all behind the apex (the point) of home plate.

Fair or foul?

Really?

What do you think and why?

Does the rule change in the vicinity of the plate?

Two posts, two more questions.

Answer please?

No. Make an attempt to figure it out and we'll help.

Fed 2.5.1 e, "touches first, second or third base."

No mention of Home plate, which is in fair territory. If the ball hits fair territory and then is touched in foul territory before it passes ot touches the any part of first or third, what do we have? Same answer as OP.

johnny,

Where, exactly, was the ball when the F2 gloved it?

If you were speaking precisely, you answered your question in your first post.

JM

Okay, who is this REALLY? And what have done with the real johnny08?

OBR Section 2 (definitions) A FOUL BALL is a batted ball that settles on foul territory between home and first base, or between home and third base, or that bounds past first or third base on or over foul territory, or that first falls on foul territory beyond first or third base, or that, while on or over foul territory, touches the person of an umpire or player, or any object foreign to the natural ground. A foul fly shall be judged according to the relative position of the ball and the foul line, including the foul pole, and not as to whether the infielder is on foul or fair territory at the time he touches the ball.



FOUL BALL

Really? Same answer as batted ball hits the pitching rubber and rebounds back behind the plate without being touched.

I know the answer Rich. Lighten up. I can ask questions for others too! I didn't ask the question because I didn't know the answer, but to start a conversation. :-) I got the play right in my NCAA game this weekend. Much to the disagreement of the defensive skip.

JM, the bunted ball went from the bat directly down to home plate, then high up in the air, where F2 gloved the ball clearly behind the apex of home plate and attempted to throw to 3b for a force out. F2 states "but it hit home plate" I said "yes you are correct."

What surprised me about the play was how many people thought that since the ball bounced off of home plate it was always and automatically fair no matter what occurred afterward.

I assume you mean the ball was behind the apex.

What's even more surprising is some coaches will argue that balls that hit home plate are automatically foul.

Yes. Correct.

Thanks for that, johnnyg08; Few of your detractors do. :rolleyes:

It is a good reminder that home plate is in fair territory but any play directly behind the point of home plate is not. :)

I know you've been on here long enough to know the answer to that question. Why do you ask this? Why do we care where F2 or the glove are, btw?

I assure you no umpires thought this. Maybe a decent (semi-dumb) question for a coach's quiz on rules... but truly a DUMB question on an umpire board that simply made you look uneducated.

Hands, please ... did ANYONE need this reminder? Anyone?

Umm, I'm a hoops guy, and no. I didn't.

Think what you want. It doesn't matter. How many other guys ask the questions they know the answers to? Lots.

Using that logic, every person who writes a rules test must be an idiot. After all, only the uneducated would ask a question that they knew the answer to...so all of the test writers know the answers to their questions, they must all be uneducated.

Did you take the Fed test???? :rolleyes:

Yes ;)