Umps reverse foul/fair call in Friday’s A’s/Royals game...

[Fan10]

Originally Posted by JRutledge

This is ridiculousness to make this call and arbitrarily decide that a runner would had been.

I don't know what you think they do on spectator interference.

[johnnyg08]

Originally Posted by Fan10

I don't know what you think they do on spectator interference.

Yes, but it's two completely different plays...changing a play from foul to fair on a non-homerun ball is unprecedented.

[MrUmpire]

Originally Posted by johnnyg08

Yes, but it's two completely different plays...changing a play from foul to fair on a non-homerun ball is unprecedented.

Are you sure?

[johnnyg08]

Originally Posted by MrUmpire

Are you sure?

no

[JRutledge]

Originally Posted by Fan10

I don't know what you think they do on spectator interference.

Not the same situation at all. Spectator interference involves the time of the infraction and what the play prevented from happening. Calling a foul ball and then deciding that it would have been a double is just plain silly. Actually I think the NF got this one right, because if you are going to call a foul ball in that code you cannot take it back. They created that rule because to do would be chaos. This to me just went too far and assumes a lot of things.

Peace