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wmandino Tue Jul 06, 2010 06:02pm

Runner Interference
 
Bases loaded 1 out. Ground Ball hits runner going from 2nd to 3rd. Does the runner on 3rd score or does he go back to his original base.

SethPDX Tue Jul 06, 2010 06:30pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by wmandino (Post 684643)
Bases loaded 1 out. Ground Ball hits runner going from 2nd to 3rd. Does the runner on 3rd score or does he go back to his original base.

He goes back.

rbmartin Tue Jul 06, 2010 06:30pm

Runner is out. Ball is dead. Batter awarded first. Runners only advance if forced via the batter becoming a runner.

wmandino Tue Jul 06, 2010 06:34pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by rbmartin (Post 684646)
Runner is out. Ball is dead. Batter awarded first. Runners only advance if forced via the batter becoming a runner.

7.08 (f) ....except runners forced to advanced.

why is R3 not considered a runner forced to advance?

LilLeaguer Tue Jul 06, 2010 06:37pm

Lose the Force, Luke
 
Quote:

Originally Posted by wmandino (Post 684647)
7.08 (f) ....except runners forced to advanced.

why is R3 not considered a runner forced to advance?

Because, once R2 is out, R3 is not forced to advance. B/R goes to 1st, R1 is forced to second, but second is vacant now for R1.

SethPDX Tue Jul 06, 2010 06:40pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by wmandino (Post 684647)
7.08 (f) ....except runners forced to advanced.

why is R3 not considered a runner forced to advance?

Is a runner forced any longer if a runner behind him is put out?

wmandino Tue Jul 06, 2010 06:42pm

So you would consider this just like the SS fielding the ball and throwing the ball to 3 and getting R2 out on a force therefor R3 can return to 3rd i.e. rundown.

LilLeaguer Tue Jul 06, 2010 06:43pm

You are correct sir!
 
Quote:

Originally Posted by wmandino (Post 684650)
So you would consider this just like the SS fielding the ball and throwing the ball to 3 and getting R2 out on a force therefor R3 can return to 3rd i.e. rundown.

I would.

wmandino Tue Jul 06, 2010 06:50pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by SethPDX (Post 684649)
Is a runner forced any longer if a runner behind him is put out?

The runners(all) are forced to advance once the ball was put in play. The rule book I have says nothing about only the BR and R1 being allowed to advance due to being forced. It say "runnerS" forced to advance. I read this as all runners in a force situation.

This is the reason I posted here. I've flip-flopped on this all day. Thanks for all the input and discussion.

bob jenkins Tue Jul 06, 2010 07:12pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by wmandino (Post 684652)
The runners(all) are forced to advance once the ball was put in play. The rule book I have says nothing about only the BR and R1 being allowed to advance due to being forced. It say "runnerS" forced to advance. I read this as all runners in a force situation.

Read it how you want, but others have given you the correct interpretation. It means "runners forced to advance because the BR is awarded first." In the OP, that no longer includes R3.

rbmartin Tue Jul 06, 2010 07:17pm

STEP 1:

7.09 It is interference by a batter or a runner when-
(m) A fair ball touches him on fair territory before touching a fielder.....
PENALTY FOR INTERFERENCE:The runner is out and the ball is dead.

Step 2:

6.08 The batter becomes a runner and is entitled to first base without liability to be put out (provided he advances to and touches first base) when-

(d) A fair ball touches an umpire or a runner on fair territory before touching a fielder....

Step 3:

7.04 Each runner, other than the batter, may without liability to be put out, advance one base when-

(b) The batter's advance without liability to be put out forces the runner to vacate his base, or when the batter hits a fair ball that touches another runner or the umpire before such ball has been touched by, or has passed a fielder, if the runner is forced to advance;...

Step 4:

5.09 The ball becomes dead and runners advance one base, or return to their bases, without liability to be put out, when-

(f) A fair ball touches a runner or an umpire on fair territory before it touches an infielder including the pitcher, ...l; runners advance if forced;

Rich Ives Tue Jul 06, 2010 07:43pm

Read 2.00 Force Play. It has an example of the force being removed.

DG Tue Jul 06, 2010 10:11pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by lilleaguer (Post 684651)
i would.

+1

UmpJM Tue Jul 06, 2010 10:43pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by Rich Ives (Post 684661)
Read 2.00 Force Play. It has an example of the force being removed.

+2

wmandino,

Of all the rules cited, Rich Ives pointed you to what you were missing.

Specifically, I believe he was referring to:

Quote:

...Rule 2.00 (Force Play) Comment: Confusion regarding this play is removed by remembering that frequently the “force” situation is removed during the play.

Example: Man on first, one out, ball hit sharply to first baseman who touches the bag and batter-runner is out. The force is removed at that moment and runner advancing to second must be tagged. ...
Essentially, any time a following runner is called out for any reason, the force is removed at that instant for any preceding runners who had become forced by virtue of the batter becoming a runner.

JM


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