OBR. R1 on 3B, R2 on 2B. Batter hits a very high blast down the LF line. R1 takes three steps toward home and then stops and turns to watch the ball. R2 can see that the ball will clear the fence easily, so he runs. R2 rounds 3B and passes R1 (a) before the ball passes the pole on the foul side, (b) after the ball passes the pole on the foul side but before it hits in the stands.

In either case, is R2 out for passing R1?

If R2 would be out in (b), what if the umpire had yelled "Foul" immediately after the ball passed the pole on the foul side, and then R2 passed R1 before it hit in the stands?

I have a game next weekend and fear that this might happen and I won't know what to call.

First of all, it's easier for us to understand the situation if you use this..R1 at 1B, R2 at 2B, R3 at 3B.

Now, a runner who passes a preceding runner is OUT, whether the ball is live or dead, as long as it's a FAIR ball.

"(b) after the ball passes the pole on the foul side but before it hits in the stands."

It's a FOUL ball. Hitting the stands, or whatever, has no bearing. NO OUT.

Bob

My $.02

On a foul the ball is dead.

On a dead ball, bases cannot be run (except on an award - not relevant)

Therefore, the runners were not "running bases" so therefore R2 isn't out.

Well, those answers make sense. I was just wondering whether violations that occurred before the ball actually became foul by definition should be recognized.

From now on it's going to be Able, Baker, etc., not R1, R2. I guess it's Fed that designates the runners the way I did.

Bob,
 

greymule is exactly right. He numbered the runners as they are numbered in FED. This is one of those "things" that FED could fix if they wanted to.

<i> Originally posted by greymule </i>

<b> OBR. R1 on 3B, R2 on 2B. Batter hits a very high blast down the LF line. R1 takes three steps toward home and then stops and turns to watch the ball. R2 can see that the ball will clear the fence easily, so he runs. R2 rounds 3B and passes R1 (a) before the ball passes the pole on the foul side, (b) after the ball passes the pole on the foul side but before it hits in the stands.

In either case, is R2 out for passing R1?

If R2 would be out in (b), what if the umpire had yelled "Foul" immediately after the ball passed the pole on the foul side, and then R2 passed R1 before it hit in the stands?

I have a game next weekend and fear that this might happen and I won't know what to call. </b>

Assuming 2 man system.

The PU calls Fair / Foul
The BU is watching the runner(s)

Therefore, as BU since you don't know if the ball is Fair / Foul you call the out and let play continue until you either hear FOUL or see your partner point Fair.

If it's a Foul Ball, then simply put the runners back. If the ball was Fair then you have the out.

This mechanic is similar to when a ball is hit to the outfield and we don't know for certain if ball went under a fence or got stuck somehere. The fielders raise their hands, runners are instructed to keep running. We go out and check and if the ball indeed went under the fence or got stuck we simply put the runners back.

A foul ball is a Dead ball so it's easier to undo then to call it the other way.

In summary, you call the out as soon as it happens, if the ball is indeed foul then the runners are simply put back.

If you don't call the out and the ball is FAIR then you have a mess to sort out.

Pete Booth

AAAARRRRGHHHHH!!!!!!!

Save time, save money! Just say, R2, R3. And WE'LL KNOW!