FED Obstruction
 

Hi Fellas,

I have a scenario for those who do FED ball.

R1, pick-off attempt at 1B but 1st baseman completely blocks runner from getting back to base without the ball. BU correctly calls obstruction on the play. Which base does runner get because of Obstruction?

Please cite your rule and explain your interpretation.

I'm debating some of the verbiage in this rule with a colleague and I'm looking for more authoritative interpretations on this play. My understanding is that FED does not have Type 1 & 2 OBS like OBR. Am I interpreting this correctly? Why does FED say that "the umpire shall award the obstructed runner and each other runner affected by the obstruction the bases they would have reached, in his opinion, had there been no obstruction", but then say that they get the base they would've reached had their been no obstruction?

Has this rule changed for FED in the last three years?

See page 48 in the FED rule book:

ART. 2 . . . When a runner is obstructed (2-22) while advancing or returning to a base, the umpire shall award the obstructed runner and each other runner affected by the obstruction the bases they would have reached, in his opinion, had there been no obstruction. If the runner achieves the base he was attempting to acquire, then the obstruction is ignored. The obstructed runner is awarded a minimum of one base beyond his position on base when the obstruction occurred. If any preceding runner is forced to advance by the awarding of a base or bases to an obstructed runner, the umpire shall award this preceding runner the necessary base or bases. Malicious contact supersedes obstruction. Runner(s) will be awarded appropriate base(s) per umpire judgement. When obstruction occurs, the umpire gives the delayed dead ball signal and calls “obstruction.” If an award is to be made, the ball becomes dead when time is taken to make the award.

Second


You already did.

R1 gets 2B. You've quoted the rule yourself.

The rule is two-fold:
1. Award what you think the runner would have gotten.
2. If that award doesn't give the runner one base beyond his last-aquired base, give him one base.

Basically, OBS penalizes the defense everytime. In OBR, R1 would be allowed to remain on 1B (no award). However, Fed wants to prevent F3 from trying this on every play, so they give the runner the next base.

Edit: The rule allows the umpires to award more than one base. For example, speed-demon R1 with a base hit to the RF corner. You know that he'll make it home easily, as defense was shifted to LF. After rounds 2B, he's obstructed by F6. You can award R1 home on the play.

Careful here. Let the play finish before deciding to award bases. If R1 is out at home by a fingernail, then yes, awarding home would seem to rectify the obstruction.
If R1 is tagged out half way to home, then no, the obstruction did not cause him to be out.
Biggest hang up on this is for us not to decide the award (protection) or punishment until the play is finished.

Careful here.

How badly was the OBS? If I rule it was enough to be out halfway, then I could award home.

I do agree, though. The award should match what you think they would have gotten had the OBS not occurred. It also does not protect the runner after that base you would have awarded.

Why are you complicating this thread? The thread is about R1 being obstructed while trying to return to 1st on a pickoff to 1st in a FED game. We are not talking about R1 going home or 3rd or scratching his butt while dancing the jig at 2nd. This is why these threads get so far out of hand. Stick to the subject, please.

Alternatively, feel free to start a new thread.

[QUOTE=yawetag;675523]

Disagree

In the OP in OBR it would be considered Type "A" OBS. In Type "A" OBS the runner just like FED is automatically awarded one base beyond his position when obstructed EVEN THOUGH the runner was going back to first base.

It's OBR Type "B" that can result in no award

Pete Booth