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-   -   I think I kicked this obstruction (https://forum.officiating.com/baseball/5795-i-think-i-kicked-obstruction.html)

jimfreeman Mon Sep 16, 2002 06:29am

I had a play at the plate in a rundown Friday night. R3 came off the bag a little too far and F2 threw down to 3rd. Realizing he was out if he returned he broke for home. F1 ended up set up about 1' - 2' into the infield side of home & about 1' up the line and and F2 was sort of a spectator in foul territory, almost mirroring F1. The throw from F5 came to F1. R3 attempted to get to home by coming into foul territory but was forced even wider by F2. Needless to say he couldn't reach the plate and was tagged out. If you can picture it R3 had about a 3' "slot" in between F1 & F2 to reach the plate. He chose to go around F2. I've got a feeling I blew it, because if F2 wasn't there a nice slide in foul ground with his left hand outstretched would have caught the plate. Comments?

dave Mon Sep 16, 2002 09:35am

I believe that once F2 was not an active member of the play he must stay clear of the runners advance to the plate. I believe that interferance should have been called on F2 and the runner awarded home.

PeteBooth Mon Sep 16, 2002 09:56am

<i> Originally posted by dave </i>

<b> I believe that interference should have been called on F2 and the runner awarded home. </b>

The Offense "Interferes"

The Defense "Obstructs"

Therefore, in this play assuming OBR rules, the call is TIME, that's Obstruction (Type "A"), ball immediately dead and award R3 home.

If this were a FED game, Obstruction is delayed dead and we wait for ALL playing action to end before enforcing.

Pete Booth

Jerry Mon Sep 16, 2002 10:48am

It's almost a "You had to be there" scenario, wouldn't you think? R3's baseline is a "direct line from where he's at, to the base he's headed." Assume there's no issue with where F1 is standing. F2, according to the originator is mirrored to F1, putting F2 in foul territory 1'-2' from the line. R3 technically has 1-1/2 feet on either side of his baseline where he can run without avoiding a tag and being called out for that reason. If he chose to run around F2, rather than F2 impeding or obstructing R3's advance, you could have an "Out" called on R3. Yes? It sure would have been easier to call had R3 continued running straight to home and then colliding with, or being forced to run around F2. I'm not sure I'd call anything in this instance. Let the play stand. Again . . . I think you had to be there.

Jerry

bob jenkins Mon Sep 16, 2002 12:28pm

Quote:

Originally posted by Jerry
R3's baseline is a "direct line from where he's at, to the base he's headed." Assume there's no issue with where F1 is standing. (snip) R3 technically has 1-1/2 feet on either side of his baseline where he can run without avoiding a tag and being called out for that reason. Jerry
The "baseline" is 6' wide -- 3' on either side.

This puts F2 right in the middle of R3's path.

Sure, it would have been an easier call if contact was made, but, as I read the play, it was obstruction.

dave Mon Sep 16, 2002 12:32pm

The Offense "Interferes"

The Defense "Obstructs"

Thanks for the clairification. At least the end result was correct.

MAC Mon Sep 16, 2002 06:00pm

Obstruction on F-2, score the run,

the post stated it clearly, f-2 was a guilty bystander.

mac


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