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-   -   Batter Hit By Throw while running out of three foot zone. (https://forum.officiating.com/baseball/57182-batter-hit-throw-while-running-out-three-foot-zone.html)

LeeBallanfant Tue Feb 16, 2010 09:37pm

Batter Hit By Throw while running out of three foot zone.
 
Two Situations, MLB rules
1.
One out, runners on 1B and 3B, Squeeze Play, batter successfully bunts ball but is hit by throw while running out of 3 foot zone and called out. Runner on 3B was halfway to dugout after touching HP when this happened. Runners return to original bases?

2.
Same as above but scored tied in last of 9th.

johnnyg08 Tue Feb 16, 2010 09:45pm

My understanding is that no runner can advance on Interference.

MLB also talks about an "intervening play" which you did not address in your post. There are some times where a run could count w/ less than 2 out and you could still have INT...but I think you return the runner on the plays your describing.

Rich Ives Tue Feb 16, 2010 09:50pm

RTFM

Rule 2.00 (Interference) Comment: In the event the batter-runner has not reached first base, all runners shall return to the base last occupied at the time of the pitch.

LeeBallanfant Tue Feb 16, 2010 09:54pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by johnnyg08 (Post 662334)
My understanding is that no runner can advance on Interference.

MLB also talks about an "intervening play" which you did not address in your post. There are some times where a run could count w/ less than 2 out and you could still have INT...but I think you return the runner on the plays your describing.

Thats my first inclination also, but in last of 9th situation, I might think differently if both runners from 1B and 3B had already touched their next respective bases, which case I would think the game is over and interference ignored.

johnnyg08 Tue Feb 16, 2010 10:26pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by LeeBallanfant (Post 662336)
Thats my first inclination also, but in last of 9th situation, I might think differently if both runners from 1B and 3B had already touched their next respective bases, which case I would think the game is over and interference ignored.

Why would the B9 be treated any differently from B3 in the situations you are describing?

No run can score if the 3rd out is made at 1B before the B/R reaches 1B.

Rich posted the rule and there are many, many case plays that support the rule.

LeeBallanfant Tue Feb 16, 2010 10:31pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by johnnyg08 (Post 662340)
Why would the B9 be treated any differently from B3 in the situations you are describing?

No run can score if the 3rd out is made at 1B before the B/R reaches 1B.

Rich posted the rule and there are many, many case plays that support the rule.

With one out, if the runner on 1st reached 2nd, the only out that can be made is the 2nd out on the batter. Since a runner on 1B has touched 2B the force situation is off and the run would score even if that runner was eventually put out.

johnnyg08 Tue Feb 16, 2010 11:28pm

Here are some principles...please cite others if you find them:

If the umpire declares the batter, batter-runner or a runner out for interference, all other runners shall return to the last base that was, in the judgment of the umpire legally touched at the time of the interference unless otherwise provided by the rules.

7.08b comment ..."no runner shall advance on an interference play and a runner is considered to occupy a base until he legally has reached the next succeeding base"

J/R page 109: If a batter/runner has not yet touched or passed first base at the time of interference, all runners not out must return to their TOP base.

Exceptions (the one that matters here) is the intervening play.

Also read OBR rule 2.00 "Interference"

bob jenkins Wed Feb 17, 2010 08:48am

Quote:

Originally Posted by LeeBallanfant (Post 662336)
Thats my first inclination also, but in last of 9th situation, I might think differently if both runners from 1B and 3B had already touched their next respective bases, which case I would think the game is over and interference ignored.


The play is the same regardless of the outs or the inning. BR is out, other runners return (okay -- if the BR was the third out, the runners don't literally return, but they do for scoring purposes).

Only if there's an intervening play would R3's run count.

ManInBlue Fri Feb 19, 2010 08:45pm

Bottom 9, one out R1 & R3. batter hit with throw to 1B. 2outs now still R1 & R3. Next batter hits grounder to F4, easy out at 1B - Top 10, tie score - lead off goes yard. Next 3 batters out 1-2-3. Home team goes 3 up-3 down. Visitors win in 10.

Not enforcing the rule changed the outcome. Why do you allow home team to win because it's B9?

We are there to enforce the rules. Rule says Batter out, runners return (as played in OP).

DG Sat Feb 20, 2010 09:43pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by leeballanfant (Post 662336)
thats my first inclination also, but in last of 9th situation, i might think differently if both runners from 1b and 3b had already touched their next respective bases, which case i would think the game is over and interference ignored.

no

dddunn3d Sun Feb 21, 2010 12:41am

Intervening Play?
 
straight from rule 2.00--

On any interference the ball is dead.

Therefore, no play can follow the interference.

TussAgee11 Sun Feb 21, 2010 02:24am

Quote:

Originally Posted by dddunn3d (Post 663400)
straight from rule 2.00--

On any interference the ball is dead.

Therefore, no play can follow the interference.

FALSE FALSE FALSE. CI and BI are two examples where plays follow interference.

Intervening play is when we have a play at the plate (or any other base), runner safe, and then a INT on any subsequent runner where his INT is 3rd out. Most likely R3 2 outs tapped back to pitcher who flips home, runner safe, then batter/runner INT on play at first. Score the run, batter out. That is the intervening play.

greymule Sun Feb 21, 2010 08:22am

The way the J/R explains it, the intervening play applies only to "a runner from 3B [who] has acquired home plate despite a play against him." [Italics in original.]

It follows, "[T]he run is allowed to score, unless the INT was a third out."

TussAgee11 Sun Feb 21, 2010 01:28pm

Flip what I said two posts above. Just re-read my own words.

Less than 2 outs, if play is made on runner, and he is safe, this is the base he is returned to when enforcing INT.

If 2 outs, same ruling, just can't have runs score if 3rd out is on B/R before he reaches first or on a force play elsewhere in the infield.

Most of the time this will happen home to first but theoretically it could happen at any base. Just not plausible.

urgone Sun Feb 21, 2010 02:11pm

I was going to ask this question in another thread but I'll just add it on here.
I gave a presentation at a winter baseball clinic recently on the running lane. I used alot of the material in Carl Childress(my personal umpiring hero) 2004
book The Usual Suspects. That material talks about the running lane being created in 1882 and that at the time the foul line ran directly through the middle of both first & third base.
Two questions for someone who has the knowledge:
1) When was the foul line(actually fair line) moved to the edge of the base?
2) When they did that did they compensate for the 90 degree angle at home
and move second to keep the diamond a perfect square?

Rich Ives Sun Feb 21, 2010 02:17pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by urgone (Post 663512)
I was going to ask this question in another thread but I'll just add it on here.
I gave a presentation at a winter baseball clinic recently on the running lane. I used alot of the material in Carl Childress(my personal umpiring hero) 2004
book The Usual Suspects. That material talks about the running lane being created in 1882 and that at the time the foul line ran directly through the middle of both first & third base.
Two questions for someone who has the knowledge:
1) When was the foul line(actually fair line) moved to the edge of the base?
2) When they did that did they compensate for the 90 degree angle at home
and move second to keep the diamond a perfect square?

The didn't move the line - they moved the base bag - which makes Q2 moot.

greymule Sun Feb 21, 2010 02:18pm

TussAgee11: Well, you said, "or any other base," and the J/R (in the specific case of BR INT before reaching 1B, not in the case of generic INT by a runner) restricts the intervening play to a failed attempt to get the runner from 3B scoring.

It's not likely to happen, but if the batter bunted, the defense played on R2 at 3B but R2 was safe, and then the BR interfered with the throw and was out before reaching 1B, R2 would have to return to 2B.

Paul L Sun Feb 21, 2010 03:58pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by urgone (Post 663512)
1) When was the foul line(actually fair line) moved to the edge of the base?
2) When they did that did they compensate for the 90 degree angle at home and move second to keep the diamond a perfect square?

1) 1887. "When the National League and American Association used the same rules starting in 1887, two changes took place. Third and first bases moved seven and one half inches, toward second base, so that they were entirely in fair ground. Also the 30 yard mark fell upon the back rear corner first and third base." Baseball History: 19th Century Baseball: The Field: Evolution of the Bases and Foul Lines

2) No. "The first and third base bags shall be entirely within the infield. The second base bag shall be centered on second base." OBR 1.06. So the base points are a perfect 90 foot square, but the centerfield corner of the second base bag is ~10.6 inches hopefully East-Northeast of the second base point.

urgone Sun Feb 21, 2010 08:51pm

Not to be picky here...I'm just mathematically curious. So the perfect 90 degree square goes from the apex of home to the back right corner of first to the exact middle of second base to the back left corner of third? Interesting that it is 90 feet from the apex to the BACK of first or third but 90 feet to second is to the MIDDLE of the bag. I'm wondering if that is because when they moved first & third in 1887 they left second where it was.

TussAgee11 Sun Feb 21, 2010 10:25pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by greymule (Post 663516)

It's not likely to happen, but if the batter bunted, the defense played on R2 at 3B but R2 was safe, and then the BR interfered with the throw and was out before reaching 1B, R2 would have to return to 2B.

I just don't understand why it would be different just because the base changed. What makes home any different than third?

Not disputing your claim, if J/R differentiates fine. What language do they use? If they are just using the home to first play as their example, it doesn't mean it theoretically can't happen elsewhere, even if its not practical as the play you described above.

Paul L Sun Feb 21, 2010 10:25pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by urgone (Post 663606)
Not to be picky here...I'm just mathematically curious. So the perfect 90 degree square goes from the apex of home to the back right corner of first to the exact middle of second base to the back left corner of third? Interesting that it is 90 feet from the apex to the BACK of first or third but 90 feet to second is to the MIDDLE of the bag. I'm wondering if that is because when they moved first & third in 1887 they left second where it was.

Yup and yup. Follow the link for a fascinating discussion of the historical details.

TussAgee11 Sun Feb 21, 2010 10:28pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by urgone (Post 663606)
Not to be picky here...I'm just mathematically curious. So the perfect 90 degree square goes from the apex of home to the back right corner of first to the exact middle of second base to the back left corner of third? Interesting that it is 90 feet from the apex to the BACK of first or third but 90 feet to second is to the MIDDLE of the bag. I'm wondering if that is because when they moved first & third in 1887 they left second where it was.

Yes, if you drew a perfect square it would hit back right corner of first, middle of second, and back left corner of third. It is because 2nd was never moved when 1st and 3rd were.

rbmartin Sun Feb 28, 2010 04:51pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by Rich Ives (Post 662335)
RTFM

Rule 2.00 (Interference) Comment: In the event the batter-runner has not reached first base, all runners shall return to the base last occupied at the time of the pitch.

Is rule 6.05k officially "interference"? Does Riches' reference apply here? I think it probably does but when I brought this up a few months ago, some disagreed.

UmpJM Sun Feb 28, 2010 05:05pm

rbmartin,

Yes, a "runner's lane interference" is officially interference.

Rich's cite applies unless the defense has attempted an "intervening play" prior to the interference.

"Some" were incorrect.

JM

cviverito Mon Mar 01, 2010 10:09am

Quote:

Originally Posted by urgone (Post 663512)
Two questions for someone who has the knowledge:
1) When was the foul line(actually fair line) moved to the edge of the base?
2) When they did that did they compensate for the 90 degree angle at home
and move second to keep the diamond a perfect square?

1. Not sure. But I do know the line went from corner to corner when it split the bag. Just curious - why do you want to know?

2. No. The new layout eliminated the "perfect diamond" or square. The diamond is now a bit out of whack geometrically (technically speaking).

UmpJM Mon Mar 01, 2010 11:56am

chris,

Technically speaking, the rule book infield is STILL a perfect geometric square.

JM

mbyron Mon Mar 01, 2010 12:17pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by UmpJM (nee CoachJM) (Post 665506)
chris,

Technically speaking, the rule book infield is STILL a perfect geometric square.

JM

What throws some people off is that the pitcher's plate is NOT on the diagonal.

Rich Ives Mon Mar 01, 2010 12:22pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by cviverito (Post 665496)
1. Not sure. But I do know the line went from corner to corner when it split the bag. Just curious - why do you want to know?

2. No. The new layout eliminated the "perfect diamond" or square. The diamond is now a bit out of whack geometrically (technically speaking).

No, the infield is a perfect square - by rule. The actual base is the point on the ground at the corners of the square.

See 1.04 When location of home base is determined, with a steel tape measure 127 feet, 3⅜ inches in desired direction to establish second base. From home base, measure 90 feet toward first base; from second base, measure 90 feet toward first base; the intersection of these lines establishes first base. From home base, measure 90 feet toward third base; from second base, measure 90 feet toward third base; the intersection of these lines establishes third base.

Home plate and the bags are markers for the bases, and are positioned differently at the different corners.

1.05 Home base shall be marked by a five-sided slab of whitened rubber. . . It shall be set in the ground with the point at the intersection of the lines extending from home base to first base and to third base;

1.06 First, second and third bases shall be marked by white canvas bags, securely attached to the ground as indicated in Diagram 2. The first and third base bags shall be entirely within the infield. The second base bag shall be centered on second base.


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