Balk/Illegal pitch question
 

I had a pitcher in a sophomore game tonight who, when pitching from the windup would have one foot on the rubber and the other behind it. He would take his sign, bring the other foot to the rubber then stop. Then he would go into his motion and deliver the ball to the plate. Is this a violation of some kind? It wouldn't be a balk with no runners on base, so is it an illegal pitch and a ball awarded to the batter? Or do I have nothing here? I haven't been around all that long so I appreciate anyone's feedback.

Nothing.

Nothing.

Which foot?

Still nothing.

Sorry to resurrect an old thread, but I have not been on the computer for almost two weeks.

The reason I asked which foot: If it is his free foot, isn't the movement of the foot the beginning of the pitch? If he begins his pitch, then stops, isn't that a problem?

If he is pitching from the windup with the bases empty, I would tend to see nothing, but what if there are runners? What if they go on first movement and he stops, then steps off and throws them out? Still nothing?

I would not allow the pitcher to step on the rubber with his free foot and not continue with the pitch with runners on base. He can do the move, but he is committed to pitch if he does. That's how I see it.