Maybe this is for CI...but if the runner is not forced, but is stealing a base, he gets the base he was attempting to steal correct? It wouldn't make sense for BI though since that would obviously encourage BI. If he's forced to another base and we're enforcing the CI by giving the B/R 1B...but a runner who's stealing gets at least the base he was attempting...correct?

This is not an accurate statement when BI occurs and the catcher is attempting to retire R1 as in the OP's scenario. The number of outs is irrelevant. The batter is the one who is always out on BI unless he struck out on the pitch. In that case, because he cannot be called out twice, the runner on whom the play was being made or could have been made is declared out. Whether there are 0 outs or 2 outs, the batter is still the one banged out for BI.

Your statement above refers to plays at the plate. With <2 outs, the runner coming home is out. With two outs, the batter is out and no run scores.

Read JM's answer again, carefully. He is saying the same thing you are.

The first part of his answer appeared to indicate otherwise, Bob. Of course, I could simply me misreading it. That can happen on 4 hours of sleep. :D