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-   -   NCAA/OBR interp please (https://forum.officiating.com/baseball/52782-ncaa-obr-interp-please.html)

jkumpire Thu Apr 09, 2009 09:44pm

NCAA/OBR interp please
 
Hi men!

Ran into some bad college BB this afternoon, but that is another story for another day. NAIA rules govern, but since NAIA uses modified OBR, I would like OBR and NCAA interpretations.

I had a fairly interesting play that I need some help on unpacking. We have R3/R1, or R2/R1, outs do not matter. While I think it was R1/R3, I am not sure at this point.

F1 throws a pick off to F3. However, F3 takes a step towards the mound as he gets the ball, then throws to 3B to try and get the runner there (either R2 running on the pick, or more than likely R3 too far off 3rd. There is no play on or attempted tag of R1 as he returns to 1B.

Now, the question: When does this play become a balk? The familiar OBR and I think NCAA interp is that F3 has to be at the bag, or the immediate vicinity of the bag to make it a legal pick-off move. So if F3 is one step away from the bag, and I doubted that F3 could tag R1, did I miss a balk here? I let it go because as I understand the rule there is a gray area of what is "at the bag" or immediate area of the bag, and I was unwilling to call the balk as I interpret the rule.

Thanks for the help!

bossman72 Thu Apr 09, 2009 10:12pm

If you thought they were playing on R1, then it's ok.

It sounds to me like they were not playing on R1 and indeed running a FAKE to FIRST, then throw to third. It sounds like a balk, but it's definitely HTBT.

DG Thu Apr 09, 2009 10:29pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by jkumpire (Post 595057)
Hi men!

Ran into some bad college BB this afternoon, but that is another story for another day. NAIA rules govern, but since NAIA uses modified OBR, I would like OBR and NCAA interpretations.

I had a fairly interesting play that I need some help on unpacking. We have R3/R1, or R2/R1, outs do not matter. While I think it was R1/R3, I am not sure at this point.

F1 throws a pick off to F3. However, F3 takes a step towards the mound as he gets the ball, then throws to 3B to try and get the runner there (either R2 running on the pick, or more than likely R3 too far off 3rd. There is no play on or attempted tag of R1 as he returns to 1B.

Now, the question: When does this play become a balk? The familiar OBR and I think NCAA interp is that F3 has to be at the bag, or the immediate vicinity of the bag to make it a legal pick-off move. So if F3 is one step away from the bag, and I doubted that F3 could tag R1, did I miss a balk here? I let it go because as I understand the rule there is a gray area of what is "at the bag" or immediate area of the bag, and I was unwilling to call the balk as I interpret the rule.

Thanks for the help!

F3 does not have to be at the bag if the pickoff throw is directly toward the bag. F1 could throw the ball over the top of the bag with F1 15' away and it would not be a balk. If F3 was at the bag, throw was toward F3 at the bag, and F3 came off the bag to catch the ball and throw toward 3B then no balk. Whether there was an attempt on R1 is irrelevant. Any pickoff throw directly to the bag is not a balk regardless of where F3 is or what happens afterwards.

Rich Ives Thu Apr 09, 2009 11:24pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by bossman72 (Post 595059)
If you thought they were playing on R1, then it's ok.

It sounds to me like they were not playing on R1 and indeed running a FAKE to FIRST, then throw to third. It sounds like a balk, but it's definitely HTBT.

It wasn't a fake to first - F1 threw the ball to first. What F3 does with the ball after that doesn't matter. No balk.

SanDiegoSteve Fri Apr 10, 2009 02:53am

It was a good "no call." As has been stated, the throw went toward first base, which is what the rule requires. Had F3 been playing off the base (not in line with F1 and the base), and had no play on R1, then it would be a balk in all codes. That is why the rule says "step and throw to the base," and not "step and throw to the fielder."

mbyron Fri Apr 10, 2009 07:57am

Quote:

Originally Posted by Rich Ives (Post 595071)
It wasn't a fake to first - F1 threw the ball to first. What F3 does with the ball after that doesn't matter. No balk.

I agree. Think of it this way: the restriction applies to the pitcher, not F3. So ask: did F1 step and throw to 1B? If so, then he's met the restriction and no balk. It doesn't matter what F3 does with the ball after it's thrown.

JK describes a version of this play that WOULD be a balk, where F1 throws over and F3 is not near enough to 1B at the time of the throw. That's a balk because it fails to meet the restriction on F1, not because of anything F3 did.


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