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Old Thu May 30, 2002, 06:21am
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Balk question-

Tonight’s game. Runner on third. Pitcher is pitching from a wind-up. I tell runner to break for home next time he does it. Pitcher begins (what looks to me like) a wind up, runner breaks, pitcher stops, catcher comes out, pitcher throws to catcher, etc. I tell the Ump it’s a balk. Opposing manager says he stepped back off the rubber with his pivot foot, so there’s no balk. I claim he made a motion, during or after he was stepping back, that looked like the beginning of a wind up, therefore, deceiving the runner, and its a balk. Ump says he can do more or less what he wants if he steps back off with his pivot foot first. This makes no sense to me, based on rule 8.05 and the intent of deceiving the runner. What EXACTLY can the pitcher do if as the first part of his motion, instead of rocking back on his free foot, he rocks back and off with his pivot foot? Just because he is now off, does that mean he can do what he wants? Can he make a motion that looks like part of a wind-up at this time?

This issue is driving me crazy, but I think I am figuring it out, with the help of the rule book. 8.01 (a) says The Wind Up Position “...from this position, any natural motion associated with his delivery of the ball to the batter commits him to the pitch...”

And 8.05 (g) says “...it is a balk when: The pitcher makes any motion naturally associated with his pitch while he is not touching the pitchers plate.”

So, this right-handed pitcher is “pumping” with his arms (which I associate with his pitch) but stepping back with his RIGHT (pivot) foot. To a runner, it looks like he has begun his wind up. But everyone is claiming that since he is stepping back with his pivot foot, he can throw to a base. I say once he starts pumping, he must deliver the pitch, regardless of which foot he steps back with. It seems to me that if he pumps and steps back with his right foot, then, even though he’s a righty, his left foot becomes his pivot foot, and he must deliver the pitch with his left foot on the rubber. This may be unnatural, but, since the pump move is naturally associated with delivering the pitch, he must pitch with his left foot on the rubber, making THAT his Pivot foot.

Please let me know if this makes sense. The crux is, that, with runners on, if he pumps, (swings his arms back) he must pitch, or it’s a balk. The idea is,that this would be deceiving the runner otherwise. Correct?
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Old Thu May 30, 2002, 07:43am
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If he moved his hands up while also stepping back off of the rubber it should be a balk. It is as simple as that.
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Old Thu May 30, 2002, 11:46am
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Join Date: Aug 2000
Location: Spokane, WA
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An ancient denizen of the 'net, T.Alan, coined the phrase, "It's Impossible To Balk To Second Base." Unfortunately, some umpires (and coaches) believe it is impossible to balk while in the wind-up. I have been hammered with, "He was in the wind-up, ump, he can't balk!!" by allegedly intelligent coaches.

As pointed out already, it is a balk to simulate the pitching motion while not in contact with the rubber. It is also a balk to begin a motion that commits the pitcher to pitch (or throw to second) and then stop.

Partially in defense of the umpire, what you described would have to be seen to call correctly. After all, we all know there are at least three sides to each story.

That said, if your description is totally unbiased and 100% accurate, we have a balk.
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Old Thu May 30, 2002, 04:12pm
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Thumbs up PABlue is right

I see this move all the time, especially at the lower levels that play "real" baseball. If the pitcher's hands begin to move up, then there is a balk-if the hands stay, and he steps off with the pivot, he becomes an infielder and can do what he wants.
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