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thumpferee Wed Jul 23, 2008 11:50am

Iiitbtsb
 
I know there are many threads on this so, if you could lead me there. Or a quick yes or no.

OBR

R2, pitcher comes set. Spins on his pivot foot for a pick-off attempt but ends up stepping toward 3rd while FEINTING a throw to 2nd, runner was not moving.

I read the OBR rule but it states throwing....etc

I was PU and called a balk for failing to step toward 2nd when throwing or feinting.

Did I blow it? I'm beginning to think I did.

Thanks.

RPatrino Wed Jul 23, 2008 01:19pm

OBR, pitcher must step before he THROWS, but a step is not required for a legal feint.

FED, a step is required in both cases.

UmpJM Wed Jul 23, 2008 01:32pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by RPatrino
OBR, ..., but a step is not required for a legal feint.

Uhhh... Bob,

It (a "step", that is) IS if I'm calling the game!

JM

SanDiegoSteve Wed Jul 23, 2008 01:45pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by RPatrino
OBR, pitcher must step before he THROWS, but a step is not required for a legal feint.

Not quite correct Bob.

The official interpretation from the PBUC staff is that, just like the FED, the pitcher must step before a throw or a feint.

Interpretation 248-359: OBR- "The pitcher must step toward the occupied base whether throwing or feinting."

RPatrino Wed Jul 23, 2008 03:34pm

I stand corrected. NCAA a step is not required for a legal feint. OBR is like FED, based on off. interp.

Good catch guys.

bob jenkins Wed Jul 23, 2008 04:30pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by RPatrino
I stand corrected. NCAA a step is not required for a legal feint.

Reference please.

RPatrino Wed Jul 23, 2008 04:33pm

I got this out of the 2006 BRD, at my desk at work. Could be it's been revised since then?? NCAA: Pitcher must step before he throws, but the step is not required for a legal feint. (9-3c).

Dave Reed Wed Jul 23, 2008 05:09pm

NCAA 9-3(c):
A balk shall be called for the following action:
"c. While in a pitching position, throw to any base in an attempt to retire a runner without first stepping directly toward such base; or throw or feint a throw toward any base when it is not an attempt to retire a runner or prevent the runner from advancing;
(1) The pitcher, while touching the pitcher’s rubber, must step toward the base, preceding or simultaneous with any move toward that base. The pitcher is committed, upon raising the lead leg, to throw to the base being faced, to second base or to the plate. When throwing or feinting a throw to a base not being faced, the pitcher must step immediately, directly and gain ground toward that base."

Looks to me like the pitcher has to step while feinting.

RPatrino Wed Jul 23, 2008 11:52pm

I totally agree with what Dave is saying, and I've called balks on this very thing. However, I am in a quandry vis a vis the BRD.

bob jenkins Thu Jul 24, 2008 07:44am

Quote:

Originally Posted by RPatrino
I totally agree with what Dave is saying, and I've called balks on this very thing. However, I am in a quandry vis a vis the BRD.

IMO, Carl has had this wrong in every BRD since about 1995 (and maybe earlier). (That statement is not intended to diminish the overall value of the book.)

buckeyetc71 Thu Jul 24, 2008 08:29am

You got it right. This is a balk because F1 stepped (feinted) to an unoccupied base (third).
Regards,
Tom

SanDiegoSteve Thu Jul 24, 2008 10:59am

Quote:

Originally Posted by buckeyetc71
You got it right. This is a balk because F1 stepped (feinted) to an unoccupied base (third).
Regards,
Tom

Yes, and that means it was a balk to 3rd base, not 2nd, so IIITBTSB still applies.

JJ Thu Jul 24, 2008 11:26am

:confused:
OK, I give up. What does "IIITBTSB" mean?

JJ

Rcichon Thu Jul 24, 2008 11:28am

Iiitbtsb
 
"It Is Impossible To Balk To Second Base"

Paul L Thu Jul 24, 2008 03:52pm

To which the Tim C. corollary is that if the balk is based on the failure to step towards second, then it is not a balk "to" second.

justanotherblue Thu Jul 24, 2008 09:02pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by Paul L
To which the Tim C. corollary is that if the balk is based on the failure to step towards second, then it is not a balk "to" second.


And with that, I can finally agree, you can't balk to second.:cool: Because he stepped toward third, instead of second. :D

SanDiegoSteve Fri Jul 25, 2008 12:16am

Quote:

Originally Posted by justanotherblue
And with that, I can finally agree, you can't balk to second.:cool: Because he stepped toward third, instead of second. :D

I can't resist trying to come up with one.

What about when the pitcher spins around and steps toward second, feints to second, and 2nd base is unoccupied and R1 not even moving. The balk advances R1 to 2nd. Is this a balk to 2nd base?

cbfoulds Fri Jul 25, 2008 05:29am

Quote:

Originally Posted by SanDiegoSteve
I can't resist trying to come up with one.

What about when the pitcher spins around and steps toward second, feints to second, and 2nd base is unoccupied and R1 not even moving. The balk advances R1 to 2nd. Is this a balk to 2nd base?

Well... one school of thought is: No, it is a balk for, among other things, failing to deliver the pitch after beginning the delivery. [Here it gets kinda circular - F1 wasn't engaged in a pick-off or play, 'cause R1 wasn't moving, so what he did MUST have been begin a delivery ....] So the accepted formulation [to avoid being labeled a stubborn, pendantic SOB] is
IIITBT[occupied]SB. "Liberals" add II[almost]ITBT[occupied]SB, because somewhere, someone will immagine some off-the-wall TWP, which can only happen on a Thursday with the moon full and the SS distracted by wiping the fireants off his Jawbreaker.......... you know.

bossman72 Sat Jul 26, 2008 10:43pm

Tee can mess around with the semantics pretty well to defend his IIITBTSB stronghold. Just try. You will fail. haha!


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