How Did They Reach This Compromise?
 

Reds/Nationals - R1, one out. Batter tries to bunt for hit. Ball dies right in front of plate. F2 picks it up and as he's throwing to 2nd base for the force , the first base umpire is yelling "Foul ball - the ball hit the batter while he was in the box."

Meanwhile, the defense completes the DP on the BR.

BR clearly slows down and nearly stops about 45 feet from first base as he sees the first base umpire signaling foul ball.

Defense manager comes out to argue saying it did not hit him. (replays back him up).

After the umpires conference, they call R1 out on the force BUT they award the batter first base.

Any ideas how they would have arrived at that?

Just common sense is all I can think of.

The U1 calling foul caused the runner to slow down, thus it only makes sense to award him first base due to the umpires mistake.

Maybe we need a new rule with all of the plays being overturned in MLB, call it "umpire obstruction" or something ...:rolleyes:

thanks
David

The defense had a legit chance at a DP even if the runner had not slowed down. Does that factor in?

I guess my bigger question is how do you not replay the play since the umpire called a dead ball before anyone was thrown out?

No one knows. What they did is contrary to the calls that would have been made in the previous 130 years of baseball.

I'm I missing something here?

The only time you can undo a foul call is on a fence clearing HR.

There's only two choices on this play. Foul, because he was hit in the box, or Out because he was hit out of the box. You can't put the "Foul" back in the bottle after you call it.

Of course "TIME!" would have been the correct call by U1.

It also showcases the lack of intelligence of ML managers. Either manager had grounds to protest the game, but nothing...................

Apparently, you've never seen Bruce Froemming undo one of his calls.....;)

There is precedent in the MLB for changing a foul call to fair from an MLB game a couple of years ago. In that game, there was a hit down the line that was initially called foul. The umpires for whatever reason conferred and changed the call to fair and placed the runners.

I don't take what MLB umpires do, or don't do, as some sort of Supreme Court decision. They were wrong to do what they did in that situation, and the one we're talking about.

They were wrong, and they wear funny looking smocks.

"No, I won't move, and stop bleeding on my field"http://cache.daylife.com/imageserve/...Kn6I7/610x.jpg

Please don't get me wrong, I would never use that decision made in an MLB game as a basis for doing so in a game I work. That does not change the fact that changing a foul to fair seems to be a practice that is gaining acceptance at the MLB level.

Thanks for the pic, that is good for a "case of the Mondays". :D

Maybe I'm issing something but isn't the ball dead as soon as any umpire calls foul? Even by mistake?

I'm trying to think of any situation where you can award bases on a foul ball and can't.

True in FED, but in OBR if everybody acts like they did not hear you a FOUL can be reversed. Example, shot down the RF line, you call FOUL, Oops, I did not mean that, runner, F9, infielders, nobody does anything different than they would have done on a fair.

Heck -- there was (according to the local fish wrap) a "catch triple play" reversed to a "single all runners advance one base" last night in some MLB game I don't care about. Lah me.