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-   -   What would be your call? (https://forum.officiating.com/baseball/39845-what-would-your-call.html)

SanDiegoSteve Thu Nov 29, 2007 03:48am
And during the mid 60s, well after Teddy Ballgame left the San Diego Padres, it was known as the Jim Gentile shift here at the friendly confines of Westgate Park, where the slugger played AAA ball near the end of his short career.

Obscure fact: On Tony Gwynn's 1st birthday, Jim Gentile became the 4th player in major league history to hit Grand Slam home runs in consecutive innings.

bob jenkins Thu Nov 29, 2007 10:01am
Quote:
Originally Posted by canadaump6
R2. McCovey shift being played against the batter (hence no infielder playing even close to third). Hard hit ground ball hits R2. Nobody had a play on it. The ball did technically pass the first baseman, but he was all the way on the other side of the infield, and he was the only infielder it passed. Would this be interference? The reason I ask is because the rulebook says "touching or passing an infielder" and I am wondering if that takes into account passing an infielder who is in the immediate vicinity of the ball, or if it can mean any infielder no matter how far away he is from the ball.
Start with this general principal: A runner is out when he's hit by an untouched fair batted ball in fair territory unless BOTH of the following are true: 1) He could reasonably expect the defense to field the ball before it got to him and 2) A defender playing behind him didn't have a play

SanDiegoSteve Thu Nov 29, 2007 12:06pm
Quote:
Originally Posted by GarthB
Garth B.
NCAA/ASCAP/BMI/NAACP
Didn't you do some games for the ACLU a while back?

GarthB Thu Nov 29, 2007 12:50pm
Quote:
Originally Posted by SanDiegoSteve
Didn't you do some games for the ACLU a while back?
No, that was the AAGL.

canadaump6 Thu Nov 29, 2007 01:03pm
Quote:
Originally Posted by bob jenkins
Start with this general principal: A runner is out when he's hit by an untouched fair batted ball in fair territory unless BOTH of the following are true: 1) He could reasonably expect the defense to field the ball before it got to him and 2) A defender playing behind him didn't have a play
So if nobody came even close to having a play on the ball, it would not be considered "passing an infielder" even if it did technically pass an infielder?

bob jenkins Thu Nov 29, 2007 01:06pm
Quote:
Originally Posted by canadaump6
So if nobody came even close to having a play on the ball, it would not be considered "passing an infielder" even if it did pass an infielder?
I think the words in the rule are "through or by" and "by" means "immediately by".

In some rules codes there's the "string theory" -- run a string frm F3 to F4 to F6 to F5 -- if the ball passes the string, then the ball has passed an infielder and the runner is not out.

MichaelVA2000 Thu Nov 29, 2007 02:08pm
Quote:
Originally Posted by MrUmpire
I know a few MiLB umpires on the Seaboard. What League did you work and when?
Carolina and South Atlantic leagues. Still work them as needed.

jimpiano Thu Nov 29, 2007 07:46pm
Quote:
Originally Posted by MichaelVA2000
I don't recall claiming to be a MiLB umpire. MiLB, NCAA, ASA, NSA, FED, and PONY are leagues and associations that I have umpired for.
What was your point in relation to the OP?

jimpiano Thu Nov 29, 2007 07:51pm
Quote:
Originally Posted by canadaump6
R2. McCovey shift being played against the batter (hence no infielder playing even close to third). Hard hit ground ball hits R2. Nobody had a play on it. The ball did technically pass the first baseman, but he was all the way on the other side of the infield, and he was the only infielder it passed. Would this be interference? The reason I ask is because the rulebook says "touching or passing an infielder" and I am wondering if that takes into account passing an infielder who is in the immediate vicinity of the ball, or if it can mean any infielder no matter how far away he is from the ball.

Somewhere along the line an umpire has to rely on common sense and not the typed words.

jimpiano Thu Nov 29, 2007 07:53pm
Quote:
Originally Posted by jimpiano
What was your point in relation to the OP?
I apologize. I meant this message for Garth and even that was inappropriate.

jimpiano Thu Nov 29, 2007 08:06pm
Quote:
Originally Posted by ptmac
Have a question from an exam - only OBR, not FED or NCAA.
R3 - 1 out. The batter hits a ground ball that goes down 3rd base line, hits the base and bounces off the base, hitting R3 who is in foul territory before passing or touching an infielder. Is it interference or nothing? OBR references would be nice. BTW, the exam is finished and the deadline for submission has passed, so this is for discussion only, not to help get a better mark.....:)
There is no difference if a fair batted ball goes into foul territory and strikes a coach, runner, the ball girl, the ball girl's chair, the rolled up tarp, etc, as long as all are in foul territory and are "part" of the game as defined by the rules or ground rules. A ball that strikes the base at third and ricochets into foul ground is fair regardless of the position of the infielders and until it's path is disturbed by someone or something outside of the rules or ground rules, is a live ball.

SanDiegoSteve Fri Nov 30, 2007 12:27am
Quote:
Originally Posted by jimpiano
I apologize. I meant this message for Garth and even that was inappropriate.
There is a "delete post" feature that would have taken care of it, with no embarassing apology necessary.

umpduck11 Fri Nov 30, 2007 02:48pm
*******

MichaelVA2000 Fri Nov 30, 2007 04:12pm
Quote:
Originally Posted by jimpiano
What was your point in relation to the OP?

It was a reply to GarthB's question when I did respond to the OP. Scroll back.

umpduck11 Sat Dec 01, 2007 11:20am
:D
Quote:
Originally Posted by SAump
* * * * * * *
Looks like as duck, and types like a duck.
It must be a duck............ :D


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