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Jay R Sun Jul 29, 2007 08:44pm

Strange situation, injured runner
 
Situation tonight that had the crew talking after the game.

R1, nobody out. Batter hits a drive in the gap, R1 falls after rounding 2nd base and is injured. BR goes for a double and slides into 2nd base is safely. F4then walks over to R1 and tags him out as he has still not moved since falling (R1 was about 15 feet passed second base). After the injured player is removed, we continue the game and nobody says a thing.

After the game, myself and the two other umpires discuss the play. Was the BR entitled to 2nd base if R1 had not yet touched 3rd base. In other words, when the BR was tagged while already on 2nd base, should he have been out? My partners thought he should, I couldn't understand why he should be out.

BTW OBR rules, if that makes any difference.

LilLeaguer Sun Jul 29, 2007 08:58pm

I am also confused
 
Quote:

Originally Posted by Jay R
Situation tonight that had the crew talking after the game.

R1, nobody out. Batter hits a drive in the gap, R1 falls after rounding 2nd base and is injured. BR goes for a double and slides into 2nd base is safely. F4then walks over to R1 and tags him out as he has still not moved since falling (R1 was about 15 feet passed second base). After the injured player is removed, we continue the game and nobody says a thing.

After the game, myself and the two other umpires discuss the play. Was the BR entitled to 2nd base if R1 had not yet touched 3rd base. In other words, when the BR was tagged while already on 2nd base, should he have been out? My partners thought he should, I couldn't understand why he should be out.

Since R2 (changing your nomenclature) wasn't on 2B, BR could legally occupy it. Think of it this way; if R2 wasn't considered to have vacated 2B until he acquired 3B, we'd have bizarre timing plays all over the place.

BigUmp56 Sun Jul 29, 2007 09:02pm

I don't see where the status of the BR was changed because R1 was tagged. He had legally obtained second, so why would your partners even consider calling him out. Think of it this way. Let's say the BR made it safely to second base and R1 was thrown out on a close play at third. Forget about R1 being injured, the result of the play would be R1 out on the tag, and the BR on second with one out.


Tim.

DG Sun Jul 29, 2007 09:08pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by Jay R
After the game, myself and the two other umpires discuss the play. Was the BR entitled to 2nd base if R1 had not yet touched 3rd base. In other words, when the BR was tagged while already on 2nd base, should he have been out? My partners thought he should, I couldn't understand why he should be out.

BR is not entitled to 2B only if R1 is in contact with it. If R1 has passed it BR can not be tagged out when in contact with the base.]

Let's say R1 got in a rundown between 2nd and 3rd and somehow made it back to 2nd only to find BR there also. Tag BR and he is out. You will find that in most upper level games the trail runner is coached to take the advance base when a rundown occurs because the player in a rundown is almost always out. At least after the rundown there is a runner at the advance base instead of a runner a base away watching the rundown.

fitump56 Mon Jul 30, 2007 12:31am

Quote:

Originally Posted by Jay R
R1, nobody out. Batter hits a drive in the gap, R1 falls after rounding 2nd base and is injured. BR slides into 2nd base is safely. F4 tags him out .

Was the BR entitled to 2nd base if R1 had not yet touched 3rd base.

Yes, R1 had vacated and had not returned.


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