unintentional interference
 

hi,
situation :
R1,R3, 0 outs.
hit to the 2ndbasemen, the runner slips or whatever and interferes with the 2ndbasemen absolutely unintentional). on this situation i would call R1 out for interference, award the BR 1stbase and what about R3 ? can he score on the play or has he return to 3rdbase, even if the interference was unintentional and no breaking up double play ?

INT makes no difference if it is intentional or not in this case.

Don't know the rules you are playing under but B is out most of the time, R returns to base.

Dead ball, R3 returns.

the unintentional interference with the fielder.....i wrote unintentional because if it was intentional i would call breaking up dp -> R1 + BR out, R3 returns, but if the interference was unintentional, even a dp was possible, i cannot call the BR out !
lets say the unintentional interference (no budp, BR awarded 1stbase) happend AFTER R3 scored, does he still have to return ? i don't think so....

This is NOT a timing play. If you're calling interference then ALL runners return to their TOP base and place the batter at first. Any runners forced to advance as a result of placing the batter at first move ahead.

Yes, R3 returns. Seems harsh don't it. But let's look at it another way. Maybe R1 interferes someday on a play where F4 had a clean shot at a play at the plate. Maybe R3 is the winning run in the bottom of the 9th. Then it wouldn't seem so harsh. The offense messed up. The offense is penalized.

this is why i wrote "unintentional interference happed AFTER R3 scored". he would have scored the game winning run before the interference happend" :D

Doesn't matter when R3 scored. Runners return to their time-of-pitch bases, unless forced to advance by awarding BR 1st.

What baseball rules set has the batter-runner out for the interference of R1 unless the interference was a deliberate attempt to break up a double play?


Tim.