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glengc Sat Jun 16, 2007 02:53pm

Baserunner interference question
 
Hi,
I have a question from a game I was coaching. 10 year old boys game, runners on 1st and 2nd, 2 out. Bouncer to to short near second base, my shortstop steps into position to field the ball, the runner on second gets two steps and bowls over my shortstop (would have been a great hit in football!). Ball goes bouncing into left field. The ump standing near second doesn't signal anything and I wait till the play is over till I question the ump about baserunner interference. He said the runner was entitled to two full steps and the fielder was ok to hit. I then asked him to consult the home plate ump and he says the ump at 2nd base was right. I have never heard of any such rule and to me it was a clear case of interference. Is there a rule that I haven't heard of?
Thanks!

bob jenkins Sat Jun 16, 2007 03:16pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by glengc
Hi,
Is there a rule that I haven't heard of?

Maybe, but this isn't it. These umpires kicked this one.

waltjp Sat Jun 16, 2007 03:30pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by glengc
The ump standing near second doesn't signal anything and I wait till the play is over till I question the ump about baserunner interference. He said the runner was entitled to two full steps and the fielder was ok to hit. I then asked him to consult the home plate ump and he says the ump at 2nd base was right.

Two words you need to add to your vocabulary - I protest.

DG Sat Jun 16, 2007 06:36pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by glengc
Hi,
I have a question from a game I was coaching. 10 year old boys game, runners on 1st and 2nd, 2 out. Bouncer to to short near second base, my shortstop steps into position to field the ball, the runner on second gets two steps and bowls over my shortstop (would have been a great hit in football!). Ball goes bouncing into left field. The ump standing near second doesn't signal anything and I wait till the play is over till I question the ump about baserunner interference. He said the runner was entitled to two full steps and the fielder was ok to hit. I then asked him to consult the home plate ump and he says the ump at 2nd base was right. I have never heard of any such rule and to me it was a clear case of interference. Is there a rule that I haven't heard of?
Thanks!

2 Saturdays ago I call out a runner going from 2b to 3b for making contact (not running over) with the SS who was bent over fielding a ground ball. Offensive team wanted to argue that he was running directly in his baseline. No dice. The fielder has a right to field the ball.

In the next inning the same team has a runner on 2b who runs out toward the mound and then toward 3b to avoid the SS who is bent over fielding a ground ball. Defensive team wanted to argue that he ran out of the baseline. No dice. The runner must avoid the fielder and unless the runner is running out of his baseline to avoid a tag he is ok.

Incidently, if a runner had been on 3b at the time he must return. The interference on the SS would kill the play.

Since the PU agreed with BU you are obviously dealing with 2 Smitty's.


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