Dropped third strike
 

I have had various opinions on this .
Situation - 2 out. bases loaded. dropped third strike on batter.
Can the catcher after retriving the ball just touch home for out (forced play)
or must he throw to first for out (or tag batter/runner) ?

ump29,

Of course he can just step on home with possession of the ball.

The batter becomes a runner on a 3rd strike not caught with two outs. With the bases loaded, all runners are forced because the batter has become a runner.

Those that suggested otherwise don't know what they're talking about.

JM

How various can opinions be on a yes or no question?

Yes, he can touch home for the force. (The correct opinion)

There's really only one other opinion possible: the incorrect opinion.

F2 should step on the plate then either tag the batter runner or throw to 1st.

Why are you trying for two additional outs when the OP already had two outs??

The Advantageous fourth out of course! Extreme sarc!

Going for 4 outs, Ozzy? ;)

Giving Ozzy the benefit of the doubt, what if one of the umpires who is offering one of the 'other' opinions is working the plate?

He'd still be wrong, but that probably doesn't answer your question. What are you asking?

Not only can the catcher just touch home plate, he can also throw to 2nd or 3rd if he wants to. Whatever is easier for him. It's just like any other force play.

Nope! I said . If he does both, he is covered for the out because chances are, most of you out there will not even see F2 touch the plate (seen it happen too many times)! SanDiegoSteve is also correct where F2 could throw anywhere in this situation.

Oz, me thinks your grasping at straws on this explanation!! :)

Any competent umpire will know there is a force at home and call it immediately.

If I was F2, I would stand on the plate then walk up the line towards third base waiting for R3 to attempt to come home and listening for PU to call the out. If I don't here the out call, I would continue to watch R3 but yell out, "Isn't it a foce at home?" Why throw the ball when you don't have to??

For the life of me I can't understand why the debate about such a simple question. Maybe I'm just being grouchy today.

Other opinion
 

The other opinion I have heard is that it is not a force play. I do not go with this opinion. Force play only but have heard otherwise.

Logically, how could it NOT be a force play?