Batter Kicks Fair Ball in Batters Box
 

Batter hits pitch which immediately comes to rest in fair territory, but in the batter's box (on batter's side). Batter takes off to run, but kicks ball (after it had come to rest in batter's box, fair territory).

Batter out, foul ball, or nothing?

Unless the kick was judged to be intentional it's nothing.


Tim.

I don't see this as any different than a batted ball hitting the batter over the fair territory portion of the box as he exits it. I suppose by strict interpretation of the rule you're correct that this is interference. However, by accepted practice this is nothing.


Tim.

He hits the ball. It immediately comes to rest in the batter's box. Then the batter takes off?

Why did the batter wait until the ball came to rest before running? Didn't he naturally start running when he first made contact with the ball?

And what did he hit the ball with to get it to stop immediately, a 64 degree lob wedge? Are they playing on the beach? Sounds like a real TWP to me.

FOUL BALL. See recent post on this same subject, but ball was in front of the plate and was kicked with one foot in the box and one foot out.

That sounds like a foul ball to me. Was the kick intentional? If so then you have interference and an out.

Plain and simple, If the batter contacts a fair batted ball before an infielder has an opportunity to field the ball the batter is OUT. Intent is not a factor.

This has to be one of the funniest threads ever.

Are you guys crazy? What is the difference between this situation and if he fouls it off his foot in the box? Its a foul ball. There is no way it could be nothing. What a joke.

It's definitely up there.

Actually, the field was in terrible shape, lots of dried QuikDry around the plate (just like sand), ball barely nipped bat and stopped immediately, stopped by the "sand".

The ump called an out since the batter contacted the ball after it had come to a complete stop (runner ran only after coach yelled "Run" - middle school, you know), as opposed to the ball striking the runner while ball was still moving, so he said.

Coaches didn't argue, but since there's no concensus here either, at this point, I'm not surprised.

If anybody could copy and paste the applicable rule wording here, I would appreciate.

Just trying to educate myself as a fan, and I've come to depend on you guys.

Actually, I'm amazed at the lack of concensus.

Actually, I amazed that no one knows how to spell <i>"consensus"</i>.:)

I kind of thought I didn't need to spell out that it was a foul ball. I took for granted that anyone with a lick of sense would know that when I said it was "nothing"I meant "nothing" as in not interference. I'll do better next time, PWL.


Tim.

AaaaaK!

Brain malfuction.

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