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-   -   NCAA batting out of order? (https://forum.officiating.com/baseball/30931-ncaa-batting-out-order.html)

ctblu40 Tue Jan 16, 2007 09:43am

NCAA batting out of order?
 
I just finished taking the NCAA preseason rules test online and I'm a little confused now. Here's the question:

QUESTION:
B5 bats in place of the proper batter B4 and grounds out to end the top of the sixth inning. The bottom of the sixth inning is then completed. While the home team is warming up and before the start of the top of the next inning, the home team coach appeals that B5 batted out of turn.

ANSWER:
A. The umpire should not uphold the appeal.
B. The umpire should uphold the appeal.


I answered "A" but was incorrect. Here's the rules link provided as an explaination:

Rule 7: Batting
Section 11-a: When Batter or Batter-Runner Is Out

A batter is out when:

On appeal by the opposing team, the individual fails to bat in the proper turn and another batter completes a time at bat in that place.

(2) If the improper batter becomes a base runner or is put out and an appeal is made to the umpire-in-chief before a pitch to the next batter of either team, or a play or attempted play, the proper batter is declared out and all runners return to bases held before action by the improper batter. However, any advances by a runner(s), (e.g., stolen base, balk, wild pitch, passed ball) while the improper batter is at bat are legal. If the proper batter is declared out, the next person in the lineup shall be the batter.

(3) If a proper appeal is not made, the improper batter becomes the proper batter and the results of the time at bat become official.

(4) When the action of the improper batter becomes official, the batting order resumes with the following batter.

A.R. The umpires, official scorer or public-address announcer shall not call attention to the improper batter. If this occurs, the umpire-in-chief shall warn the official scorer and/or the public-address announcer that on the next infraction the offending person will be removed from the position.


What am I missing here? Since the appeal wasn't made before the next pitch, play or attempted play, why should the umpire uphold the appeal?

tibear Tue Jan 16, 2007 02:01pm

Not only did a pitch, play or attempted play take place but an entire half inning!!!

I would say the question is wrong. You can't go back an entire half-inning.

I guess the testers are saying that there was no pitch, play or attempted play during the visitors "at bat" essentially ignoring the home teams at bat.

I would refuse the appeal and call B6 to the plate.

Dave Hensley Tue Jan 16, 2007 08:19pm

I agree this must simply be an error on the exam. That's a classic "trick" question on OBR-based exams, because not many remember the "on either team" reference with respect to the "pitch, play or attempted play" requirement. I don't know NCAA rules well, but that phrase "on either team" is right there in the rule you quoted, so the only logical conclusion is that the test is in error.

RPatrino Wed Jan 17, 2007 12:08pm

Maybe I mis-read the question, but aren't the players here warming up between innings? As I read the situation: no pitch, play or attempted play has been made by either team. The action of the illegal batter has not been made legal yet.

So, why uphold the appeal? Because it effects the batting order. B4 is called out for the third out and B5 becomes the legal batter and leads off.

Was this too easy or am I missing something obvious?

greymule Wed Jan 17, 2007 12:16pm

Was this too easy or am I missing something obvious?

The latter. There was a pitch to the other team. Therefore, the appeal was not proper. It was not made "before a pitch to the next batter of either team."

Save your copy of the test, ctblu40, preferably sealed in acid-free plastic. It may well contain the first known example of an error on a rules test.

RPatrino Wed Jan 17, 2007 12:21pm

As I read the question again, I noticed that the question referenced a complete half inning had passed. A trick question.....shame..shame....

ctblu40 Wed Jan 17, 2007 12:56pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by RPatrino
As I read the question again, I noticed that the question referenced a complete half inning had passed. A trick question.....shame..shame....

That's why I'm confused. The Batting out of order happened when B5 bats in place of B4. He grounds out and thus ends the top of the sixth. The question then states that "The bottom of the sixth inning is then completed. While the home team is warming up and before the start of the top of the next inning, the home team coach appeals that B5 batted out of turn."

So a whole half inning is completed. How do you as the UIC allow the coach to appeal this?

If this situation happened to me, I would not allow the appeal, but if the coach wants to protest the game, I would note it and make sure the official scorer is aware of the protest and continue the game.

I don't have the 2007 NCAA book yet, was there a change to the appeal rule?

greymule Wed Jan 17, 2007 01:10pm

Maybe there's a further trick to this question. All it says is, "The bottom of the sixth inning is then completed." But it doesn't stipulate how.

Perhaps no pitch was thrown in the bottom of the inning. Maybe all three outs resulted from batters who refused to enter the batter's box.

ctblu40 Wed Jan 17, 2007 01:33pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by greymule
Maybe there's a further trick to this question. All it says is, "The bottom of the sixth inning is then completed." But it doesn't stipulate how.

Perhaps no pitch was thrown in the bottom of the inning. Maybe all three outs resulted from batters who refused to enter the batter's box.

I guess that's a possibility but...

What exactly is the test writer trying to test here? If he's testing my ability to rule on baseball situations, he has lost.
If he's testing my ability to think outside the box, I suppose he has won. :rolleyes:

greymule Wed Jan 17, 2007 03:33pm

I'm pulling your leg, of course, ctblu40.

Even Educational Testing Service, which every year spends millions of dollars to develop just the SAT verbal, gets caught on a question for which there are actually two correct or even no correct answers. I admit they seldom make mistakes as obvious as the one you cited from the NCAA test, but they still make them.

A couple of years ago, ETS had to revise some PSAT scores because it had erroneously included the following sentence as a grammatically correct example:

Toni Morrison's genius enables her to create novels that arise from and express the injustices African Americans have endured.

(Anyone know why this sentence is NOT grammatically correct? Only one person contested the question, but that person had a valid point.)

Most of us take tests on certain codes every year, and there are inevitably several questions on each test that someone with a real stake in a score could contest and win. We often find ourselves asking, "Is this a trick question of some kind, or are they simply trying to remind us of a particular interpretation but didn't take much care in writing the question?"

SanDiegoSteve Wed Jan 17, 2007 07:51pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by greymule
A couple of years ago, ETS had to revise some PSAT scores because it had erroneously included the following sentence as a grammatically correct example:

Toni Morrison's genius enables her to create novels that arise from and express the injustices African Americans have endured.

(Anyone know why this sentence is NOT grammatically correct? Only one person contested the question, but that person had a valid point.)

Yes, unless you are listing things, such as apples and oranges, a comma is to be placed prior to conjunctions such as, but not limited to, "and," and "but." So there should be a comma placed between "from" and "and." Notice that no comma was required between "from" and "and" in my sentence.:)

GarthB Wed Jan 17, 2007 08:50pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by SanDiegoSteve
Yes, unless you are listing things, such as apples and oranges, a comma is to be placed prior to conjunctions such as, but not limited to, "and," and "but." So there should be a comma placed between "from" and "and." Notice that no comma was required between "from" and "and" in my sentence.:)

BZZZZZT! Sorry. Thanks for playing.

But, nice try.

Actually, under common usage, there really is not an error in the sentence. However, picking nits to the point of making language "un-understandable" (sic), the antecedent of "her" is not "Toni Morrison." The antecedent is"Toni Morrison's genius."

Therefore, the sentence technically should read "Toni Morrison's genius enables IT to create novels..."

Dave Hensley Wed Jan 17, 2007 10:02pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by GarthB
BZZZZZT! Sorry. Thanks for playing.

But, nice try.

Actually, under common usage, there really is not an error in the sentence. However, picking nits to the point of making language "un-understandable" (sic), the antecedent of "her" is not "Toni Morrison." The antecedent is"Toni Morrison's genius."

Therefore, the sentence technically should read "Toni Morrison's genius enables IT to create novels..."

I agree with your first point, that there's really nothing wrong with the sentence as written. It's kind of a run-on sentence, and therefore poorly structured but I detect no actual grammatical error.

I disagree that it is Toni's genius that is creating the novels. Toni creates the novels; her genius enables her to. I don't think that's what greymule is going to say is the error.

But it's definitely not SDS's desire to litter the sentence with superfluous commas, either.

Edited to add:
I've discovered that Garth's answer (that "her" is the error) is indeed the reason the PSAT people changed their minds and agreed the sentence was flawed. I still disagree, but I'm no English teacher; merely an honors English graduate. :)

RPatrino Wed Jan 17, 2007 10:41pm

Now I have a question. I have been reading a book, whose author makes liberal use of the colon: is this proper?

D-Man Wed Jan 17, 2007 10:59pm

Could ensuring the correct proper batter comes to bat be construed as upholding the appeal? I've got a couple NCAA questions to "contest" but on this one aren't there 3 ways to uphold a BOO appeal?

1. If the IP is not out or on base, replace with PB and assume IP's count.

2. IP is out or on base. BOO is discovered BEFORE the next pitch by either team. PB is out (cancel advnaced caused by IP's actions as a batter). Next batter is the name following PB.

3. After a pitch is thrown by either team, IP becomes legalized. Next batter is the name that follows newly legalized IP.

Can each of these three options be considered accepting (or honoring) the BOO appeal?

just a thought...

D

greymule Wed Jan 17, 2007 11:19pm

Congratulations, GarthB.

From Harper's English Grammar: "There is a good grammatical rule to the effect that a pronoun cannot take as antecedent a noun in the possessive case." But the book also acknowledges that most writers give the rule little respect, if they are even aware it exists. In actual usage, there are times in which a good writer would observe the rule, and times when he could justifiably ignore it. It is also possible that the pronoun could be an obvious reference to something named in a previous sentence; not every sentence must be grammatically complete within itself.

"The umpire's handling of the game gained him respect from the coaches" is technically incorrect, though the meaning is obvious. "The way the umpire handled the game gained him respect from the coaches" would probably be better, though.

In my medical editing, I will change "our new drug's efficacy makes it the number one choice for patients with xxx" to "the efficacy of our new drug makes it the number one choice for patients with xxx."

Two famous examples, each from a poet very careful about grammar:

(1) . . . a voice will run
From hedge to hedge about the new-mown mead;
That is the Grasshopper's—he takes the lead
In summer luxury . . .

(2) And his eyes have all the seeming of a demon's that is dreaming.

Dave has pointed out other flaws with the sentence, one being the ambiguity about exactly what genius does. Of course, the writer is trying to praise Toni Morrison and fit in the word genius, but does anything claimed for her genius—like writing about the experiences of black people—really require genius? We need to be told something about those novels for which the invocation of genius would make sense. You don't need genius to connect the experience of black people with a novel about the experience of black people.

The sentence itself is rather puffed-up writing. Create novels? Dickens wrote novels. Incidentally, it's not actually bad grammar, but using injustices as the object of both from (preposition) and express (verb) is weak style. Besides, why not delete "arise from" entirely and say simply, "TM writes ingenius novels that express the injustices African Americans have endured" or even just "about the injustices . . ."? Isn't it then obvious that the novels had arisen from those injustices? I suspect the writer of the sentence thought that complicated syntax would sound more "intelligent." To Dave, it understandably sounded more like "run-on sentence."

(Toni Morrison herself has been criticized for "stretching" grammar unnecessarily. In fact, she lives not too far from here, though I've never met her. I'll have to go give her a hard time about it at some point.)

I'd be interested to know what Carl has to say on this matter.

greymule Wed Jan 17, 2007 11:33pm

I have been reading a book, whose author makes liberal use of the colon: is this proper?

Not that use. And get rid of that comma after book, or you'll stay after school!

Dave Hensley Wed Jan 17, 2007 11:42pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by D-Man
Could ensuring the correct proper batter comes to bat be construed as upholding the appeal? I've got a couple NCAA questions to "contest" but on this one aren't there 3 ways to uphold a BOO appeal?

1. If the IP is not out or on base, replace with PB and assume IP's count.

2. IP is out or on base. BOO is discovered BEFORE the next pitch by either team. PB is out (cancel advnaced caused by IP's actions as a batter). Next batter is the name following PB.

3. After a pitch is thrown by either team, IP becomes legalized. Next batter is the name that follows newly legalized IP.

Can each of these three options be considered accepting (or honoring) the BOO appeal?


just a thought...

D

What (or who) is "IP?"

GarthB Thu Jan 18, 2007 12:01am

Quote:

Originally Posted by RPatrino
Now I have a question. I have been reading a book, whose author makes liberal use of the colon: is this proper?

Not as you used it. I would have to see what "liberal use" means.

Your sentence would be better written in either of these two ways:

I have been reading a book whose author makes liberal use of the colon; is this proper? (weak)

or

I have been reading a book whose author makes liberal use of the colon. Is this proper? (preferred)

Carl Childress Thu Jan 18, 2007 06:18am

Quote:

Originally Posted by greymule
Congratulations, GarthB.

From Harper's English Grammar: "There is a good grammatical rule to the effect that a pronoun cannot take as antecedent a noun in the possessive case." ....
The sentence itself is rather puffed-up writing. Create novels? Dickens wrote novels. Incidentally, it's not actually bad grammar, but using injustices as the object of both from (preposition) and express (verb) is weak style. Besides, why not delete "arise from" entirely and say simply, "TM writes ingenius novels that express the injustices African Americans have endured" or even just "about the injustices . . ."? Isn't it then obvious that the novels had arisen from those injustices? I suspect the writer of the sentence thought that complicated syntax would sound more "intelligent." To Dave, it understandably sounded more like "run-on sentence."

I'd be interested to know what Carl has to say on this matter.

I'm one of those <i>summa cum laude</i> graduates (master's degree), so I appreciate the chance to post in this thread. I would start by saying that I generally spell "ingenius" this way: "ingenious." Darn, those pesky typos.

The thread has some interesting points. About the colons. (fragment used for effect) The difference between the colon and the semi-colon is huge; even so, we often use them wrongly." Gag me! But my sentence is grammatical, even balanced.

A colon would be wrong. Colons connect independent clauses (so do semi-colons but....) in locutions where the second clause "explains" the first.

Here's an example from <i>51 Ways to Ruin a Baseball Game</i>:

"Do yourself and the players a favor: When the second baseman is near the bag and takes a good throw as part of a double-play attempt, ...."

Even here, authorities disagree on, of all things, the <i>spelling</i>.

The <i>New York Times</i> style book (Should that be "Times' style book"? Maybe the "style book of the <i>New York Times</i>....) requires a lowercase letter to start the explanatory clause. Thus: "Do yourself a favor: when the second baseman...."

APA style uses an uppercase letter when the material following the colon is an independent clause; a lowercase letter, when it's a phrase or a dependent clause.

Thus: "He seemed guilty: shifty eyes, slouched posture, clammy hands - all classic symptoms of the man with something to hide."

But: "He seemed guilty: The shifty eyes, slouched posture, and clammy hands gave him away."

Officiating.com endorses APA in this instance.

About the possessive:

I was taught that one shouldn't use the possessive except with animate things. Thus: "It was Benham's dog that bit me." But not "The bank's policy stiffled growth." Preferred by Mrs. Lois Smith Douglas Murray, a Baylor prof: "The policy of the bank stiffled...."

Moving on....

It's nonsense to argue that a pronoun can't have a possessive as its antecedent. Nobody pays any attention to that anymore. A more common error is failure to use the possessive before gerunds.

We get thrown off because of gender: (Explanatory material follows.)

We recognize this sentence is wrong: (Talk about embedding colons, and don't give me any Brokeback Mountain sneers) "We listened to him singing" should be "... his singing." But if it's a female, "We listened to her singing" is fine 'cause "her" is both an objective and a possessive pronoun.

Concerning the grasshopper and the demon: I don't think it fair to Keats to say he was a stickler about grammar. Which poets give a damn about grammar? How abut Supreme Court Justices? "Three generations of idions is enough." But I can't find anything wrong with the material you quoted, which was: (Oops, another colon!)

"a voice will run
From hedge to hedge about the new-mown mead;
That is the Grasshopper's—he takes the lead."

Keat's lines are poetic, grammatical, and, punctuation-wise (grin), ahead of their time. Clearly implied is the noun [that is] "possessed" by the grasshopper. It's (Do you get people who mix up "its" and "it's"?) his "voice." Then comes the semi-colon — except Keats uses a dash.

Poe, poor lad that he was, loved internal rime. (Look up that spelling! At Officiating.com, we don't separate a verb from its particle: We looked up the spelling. We didn't look the spelling up.) But Poe wasn't that fond of subject-verb agreement. What he should have written was: "And his eyes have all the seeming of a demon's [eyes] that are dreaming." But I doubt anybody would have ever quoted the line if he had written it that way.

By the way, explain this sentence: Whistler painted his mother sitting down.
How about the editor to the writer: I shall waste no time in reading your manuscript.

By the way, if you're watching football, you'll hear my favorite bugaboo, which is the dangling gerund. (Everybody's heard of the dangling participle.) Troy Aikman: "In talking with Coach Parcells, he said...."

Back to the subject, which is rambling. (Predicate nominative or predicate adjective? Who cares?)

Educational Testing Service. Lah, me.

Garth put his finger on what irritated the grammarians, a possessive noun as antecedent for a pronoun. On the other hand, you played "gotcha" with the lack of parallelism. When we find a verb-particle paired with another verb, our minds expect the second verb also to have a particle. For example: "Her genius arises from and speaks to...." Leave off the expected particle and the careful reader will always look back in the sentence. "Arise from." a compound verb, has no right to precede "expresses," a stand-alone verb.

But like you say.... (Ah, the trouble I have with writers who want to use "like" as a relative conjunction." <b>As</b> you say, it's not ungrammatical, simply crummy construction.

Then there's this: "I ain't happy, (grammatical) and she ain't happy (ungrammatical). Mrs. LSDM didn't like "ain't," however I wanted to use it. She once failed a profile I wrote because of a comma fault. So I got a B in English 101 (exposition). I fooled her. I took English 102 (argument) from her — and made an A. The profile of Paul Baker, the head of the drama department, was later published, unchanged, comma fault and all.

As Holly Hunter said in <i>The Positively True Adventures of the Alleged Texas Cheerleader-Murdering Mom</i>: "Ah, the things you do for your kids."

greymule Thu Jan 18, 2007 02:34pm

I generally spell "ingenius" this way: "ingenious." Darn, those pesky typos.

Thanks for the opportunity to save face, Carl, but I must confess that it was not a typo. I knew it, but I still blew it. And for me, that is harder to say than, "Coach, I blew the call."

I am now writing ingenious 500 times.

But I can't find anything wrong with the material you quoted,

"a voice will run
From hedge to hedge about the new-mown mead;
That is the Grasshopper's—he takes the lead."

What's wrong is that the pronoun he refers to Grasshopper, but all we have preceding the pronoun is the possessive Grasshopper's [voice]. I do think it's a bit of an overstatement to say, "Nobody pays attention to that [rule] anymore." It's easy to make up examples in which breaking that rule would be an obvious mistake.

And yes, only people, or objects that can be anthropomorphized (e.g., the sun), should take an apostrophe for their possessive form.

I appreciate the mention of APA. In my work, I often have to take an article or research paper and change it from one style (AMA, Chicago, MLA, APA, etc.) to another. "Translating" from American to British English (and spelling) and vice versa is also a common task.

By the way, explain this sentence: Whistler painted his mother sitting down.
How about the editor to the writer: I shall waste no time in reading your manuscript.


I'd call the first an example of a squinting modifier and the second simply ambiguous syntax.

Thanks for the interesting and informative post.

Carl Childress Thu Jan 18, 2007 05:25pm

[QUOTE=greymule]But I can't find anything wrong with the material you quoted,

<i>"a voice will run
From hedge to hedge about the new-mown mead;
That is the Grasshopper's—he takes the lead."

What's wrong is that the pronoun he refers to Grasshopper, but all we have preceding the pronoun is the possessive Grasshopper's [voice]. I do think it's a bit of an overstatement to say, "Nobody pays attention to that [rule] anymore." It's easy to make up examples in which breaking that rule would be an obvious mistake.</quote></i>

Sad to say for my ego, you are right. Hope springs eternal: Perhaps "grasshopper" had been mentioned earlier in the sonnet, thought I. Unfortunately for me, there is NO antecedent for "he," even though <i>everybody</i> knows <b>he</b> is the grasshopper.

The Whistler participial phrase is not exactly squinting. Generally, squinting modifiers are in the middle of the sentence. Here's one I picked up from the internet: "Students who pay attention in class most of the time get higher grades."

I'd call the Whistler sentence "ambivaletly blind."

Moses Hadas is alleged to have written the second sentence. But pre-google, a professor of mine in grad school got away with attributing it to Samuel Johnson.

Oh, the NCAA question that started this is simply silly. A better question (to see if the student knew it was a pitch to the batter of either team that cancelled the appeal) would have been something like this:

Bases loaded, two outs, B2 should bat but B3 bats instead and doubles. Three runs score, but B3 is thrown out, trying for third. The teams change sides, and the pitcher completes his warm-up tosses. After the throw-down and obligatory throws around the infield, the batter steps in and the umpire makes the ball alive. "Wait!" says the coach who had been on defense in the previous half inning. "B3 batted out of order." True or False: It's too late for him to appeal.

"Flase," as some of my students used to write.

DG Thu Jan 18, 2007 08:28pm

I'm an engineer, and none of this grammar stuff makes any sense to me. When I write technical stuff I write it technically correct then send to someone to fix the grammar.

JJ Thu Jan 18, 2007 10:18pm

The answer posted for the original question in this thread is wrong, so if you had it marked wrong, you got it right. Right?

What does all of the discussion on grammar have to do with anything in this rather straightforeward baseball question thread? I hate to wade through all of that nonsense to find relevant comments. And leave my colon out of this!
:eek:

JJ

greymule Fri Jan 19, 2007 12:16am

I'm an engineer, and none of this grammar stuff makes any sense to me. When I write technical stuff I write it technically correct then send to someone to fix the grammar.

So do many other engineers, as well as physicians, economists, statisticians, researchers, scientists, and others smart enough to know their limitations. That creates a useful niche for people like me!

DG Fri Jan 19, 2007 12:29am

I don't remember the exact quote but Dirty Harry said "a man's got to know his limitations" or something like that. I know mine and grammar ain't it. Yes, I know ain't ain't a good word and it don't belong at the end of a sentence but I already admitted that grammar ain't my forte.

V = RI is useful to know.


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