Runner on 1st, F1 attemps to pick off of R1, F3 is obsructing the runner & the ball gets away from F3 but he fires to 2nd to get R1.
What's the call? is it a immediate dead ball, or is R1 out?
What would be the call is there was a runner on 3rd, & the same play happened, does he score?

The call is obstruction, dead ball, R1 gets second. If you mean that R3 was at third on the same play he would stay there.

<i> Originally posted by JohmPMiller </i>

<b> The call is obstruction, dead ball, R1 gets second. If you mean that R3 was at third on the same play he would stay there. </b>

The ball is not immediately dead since the ball was in flight and got past F3. We would say "that's obstruction", but would let the play continue.

When F3 threw to second, that's when we would call TIME! and make the award.

Pete Booth

Pete, is of course, correct. But he is going on your opion in your situation.
Please explain how F3 obstructed the runner.

See what David is getting at. Could, in the umpires
judgement, the runner have made 2nd on the play. Need to
know, when, where, and how obstruction took place.

glen