Two Runners at First
Saw a MLB play the other night that got me thinking - usually an indicator of trouble ahead...
With no outs and R1, a very soft flare is hit to F4. R1 must have seen the sparkle in F4's eyes, because F4 lets the ball fall at his feet untouched, and R1 was never more than a stride off first base. As F4 picks up the ball, R1 steps back onto the bag, and then BR touches first as he runs 20 feet past it. F4 is still holding the ball. Is the BR out at this point for passing the runner ahead of him? What if the sequence was: As F4 picks up the untouched ball, BR touches first as he runs 20 feet past it, then R1 steps back onto the bag with F4 still holding the ball. Who's out? BR again? |
I do not believe that you have an out...yet. If the BR overran first, he has not passed the original runner. There will not be an out recorded until the defense tags the runner or second base.
(edited to correct a typo) |
chicago is right on here... no out recorded yet. The BR is out for passing a preceding only when he advances to a position closer to the next base after batting the ball fair. In this sitch, both runners are 90' from second base, nobody has passed anybody.
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I agree with previous posts. If BR turns to 2B and passes R1 standing on 1B, then he's out for passing R1. But then the force is off, and R1 is entitled to 1B again. I don't see the defense getting 2 outs on this play, unless the runners do something dumb (which is, naturally, quite possible).
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Where did R2 come from? And if the BR is already at first how come he's out?
Well, one out of three ain't bad........oh wait.........yes it is. BWAHAHAHAHAHAHAHAHA!!! This was in reply to PWL's post but he deleted it thus removing his "error". BWAHAHAHAHAHAHAHAHAHAHAHAHAH....INHALE......BWAHAH AHAHAHAHAHAHAHAHA!!!! |
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