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Dave Hensley Sun Jun 18, 2006 01:59pm

One to chew on
 
Pro rules. This play actually happened in an American Legion game last week.

Play: R1, balk called, pitcher pitches and batter hits ground ball to F6. Aware that a balk was called, there appears to be a general lack of understanding by the players on the field that the ball is alive and in play. F6, instead of playing on either runner, throws the ball back to the pitcher while R1 trots into 2B. Meanwhile batter runner has run to and touched 1B. However, due to the confusion reigning on the field, the batter runner, after touching 1B, turns and starts trotting back towards the plate. Now, hearing a coach yelling that the ball is live, F1 fires the ball to F3, at the same time a coach has yelled at the batter runner to get back on the first base bag. F3 catches the throw while standing on the bag, but does not apply a tag to the batter runner before he arrives back on the bag.

The questions are, (1) is the batter runner out or safe? Was the "force" to 1B reinstated when he reversed course, or was he merely off his base and therefore must be tagged? And, (2) if he was "forced" to 1B and therefore out, or if he had been tagged for the out, would his putout then invoke the balk penalty to enforce the balk, since he didn't make it to 1B safely?

BigUmp56 Sun Jun 18, 2006 02:13pm

Dave:

The J/R suggests that a batter-runner must be tagged to be put out if he returns to the home base side of first after touching first.

Any runner (including the batter-runner) is out when:

3)A Batter-Runner who advances to first base and then returns to the home plate side of first base can be tagged out while off the base.

i) A shortstop's bad throw is gloved along the home-base side of first base and the B/R dives to first and is safe. The B/R stands up to dust himself off and is standing a couple feet to the home plate side of first base: such B/R is out if tagged off base.



So, I would say the balk is enforced.


Tim.

ctblu40 Sun Jun 18, 2006 02:46pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by BigUmp56
Dave:

The J/R suggests that a batter-runner must be tagged to be put out if he returns to the home base side of first after touching first.

Any runner (including the batter-runner) is out when:

3)A Batter-Runner who advances to first base and then returns to the home plate side of first base can be tagged out while off the base.

i) A shortstop's bad throw is gloved along the home-base side of first base and the B/R dives to first and is safe. The B/R stands up to dust himself off and is standing a couple feet to the home plate side of first base: such B/R is out if tagged off base.



So, I would say the balk is enforced.


Tim.

I would say that according th the interpretation you listed from J/R, the balk is not enforced. Reason being that if all runners including the BR advance 1 base the balk is nullified.

Right?

BigUmp56 Sun Jun 18, 2006 02:50pm

Here in the above play the batter didn't reach first base safely.

8.05 Penalty The ball is dead, and each runner shall advance one base without liability to be put out, unless the batter reaches first on a hit, an error, a base on balls, a hit batter, or otherwise, and all other runners advance at least one base, in which case the play proceeds without reference to the balk.


Tim.

SanDiegoSteve Sun Jun 18, 2006 03:11pm

If R1 made it to 2nd safely, and the BR made it back to 1st before being tagged (as the force was not reinstated), I say that all the requirements were met for 8.05's exception that the BR and all other runners advance at least one base. No reference to the balk, runners at 1st and 2nd, no outs on the play.

Dave Hensley Sun Jun 18, 2006 03:15pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by SanDiegoSteve
If R1 made it to 2nd safely, and the BR made it back to 1st before being tagged (as the force was not reinstated), I say that all the requirements were met for 8.05's exception that the BR and all other runners advance at least one base. No reference to the balk, runners at 1st and 2nd, no outs on the play.

Assuming you go with Tim's Jaksa/Roder reference, you'd be right. I personally see more logic in the "force" (batter runners aren't forced to 1B because of the way force is defined, but the rules treat batter runners as if they were forced to 1B) being reinstated, because it is on force plays at other bases.

SanDiegoSteve Sun Jun 18, 2006 03:37pm

Quick, somebody call Jim!:)

ctblu40 Sun Jun 18, 2006 03:53pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by Dave Hensley
Meanwhile batter runner has run to and touched 1B. However, due to the confusion reigning on the field, the batter runner, after touching 1B, turns and starts trotting back towards the plate. Now, hearing a coach yelling that the ball is live, F1 fires the ball to F3, at the same time a coach has yelled at the batter runner to get back on the first base bag. F3 catches the throw while standing on the bag, but does not apply a tag to the batter runner before he arrives back on the bag.

In this statement, it appears as though he has...

BigUmp56 Sun Jun 18, 2006 04:49pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by ctblu40
In this statement, it appears as though he has...

I see now where I was tripping myself up, and I believe you're right. The balk should be nullified as the BR wasn't tagged and was to be ruled safe at first.


Tim.

GarthB Sun Jun 18, 2006 05:15pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by SanDiegoSteve
Quick, somebody call Jim!:)


Why? With a "little training and experience", you'd be just as good. Perhaps we should just rely on the SMA.

bossman72 Sun Jun 18, 2006 08:03pm

Sounds to me like the balk is nullified when R1 goes to 2nd and the BR touches first. The BR being put out at first in this situation would be the equivalent of the BR rounding first on a hit and being picked off going back to the bag.

So you would have R2, and batter out at the end of this confusing play.

When you explain the ruling to the coach, don't be surprised when he gives you a facial expression like a baboon looking at a Thesaurus. haha

GarthB Sun Jun 18, 2006 09:07pm

R1 safe at second, B/R safe at first since he was not tagged (force is removed), balk ignored. Let's play.

SanDiegoSteve Sun Jun 18, 2006 09:32pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by GarthB
Why? With a "little training and experience", you'd be just as good. Perhaps we should just rely on the SMA.

Notice the smiley face? I'm freakin' kidding!!!! Lighten up, Francis. Oh, I left out talent. My mistake. Let's not go through this again. It's getting old.

SanDiegoSteve Sun Jun 18, 2006 09:34pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by GarthB
R1 safe at second, B/R safe at first since he was not tagged (force is removed), balk ignored. Let's play.

Did you get this answer from the SMA in post # 5?:D

GarthB Mon Jun 19, 2006 12:00am

Quote:

Originally Posted by SanDiegoSteve
Notice the smiley face? I'm freakin' kidding!!!! Lighten up, Francis. Oh, I left out talent. My mistake. Let's not go through this again. It's getting old.

Getting old? Like reading the same thing over and over? Like seeing someone post one put down of Evans after another? Wow, now you know how the rest of us feel.

Get the idea?

SanDiegoSteve Mon Jun 19, 2006 12:12am

Quote:

Originally Posted by GarthB
Getting old? Like reading the same thing over and over? Like seeing someone post one put down of Evans after another? Wow, now you know how the rest of us feel.

Get the idea?

Like I said, I was kidding around. Quit making it some personal crusade, okay. One put down after another? I don't think I made more than 2 or 3 references to Evans in all of my posts. That is hardly over and over. All I said was that he was never one of my favorite AL umpires. I never once said he wasn't smart, or knowledgable, or a good teacher, or any other remark that could be considered a put-down.

mbyron Mon Jun 19, 2006 07:43am

Quote:

Originally Posted by Dave Hensley
I personally see more logic in the "force" (batter runners aren't forced to 1B because of the way force is defined, but the rules treat batter runners as if they were forced to 1B) being reinstated, because it is on force plays at other bases.

Dave, I don't think you can reinstate the quasi-force on BR at 1B.

For one thing, as you know it's not a force, it's a quasi-force, so the rules about force plays don't necessarily apply.

Further, 1B is special, so the rationale of other bases doesn't necessarily apply to 1B.

Finally, if the quasi-force were reinstated, then BR should be able to overrun 1B once he returns, but I don't think you'd allow him to do that (and I don't think I would either:) ).

EG: this case, but runner takes about 5 steps toward home plate before turning back to 1B. He runs through 1B before the ball arrives, and F3 tags him out before he returns to the bag. I'd have an out here.

Ergo: the quasi-force on BR is NOT reinstated if BR retreats toward home, and he must be tagged to be put out.

In the given case, without a tag I have BR safe, nullify the balk, play on.

RPatrino Mon Jun 19, 2006 08:39am

WTH is a quasi-force, Michael? I know quazi is a signaling format in ISDN. HA!

Let's all agree, no balk, no force, R1 and BR advanced one base. BR is in jeopardy with his aimless wandering.

LMan Mon Jun 19, 2006 08:55am

Quote:

Originally Posted by RPatrino
WTH is a quasi-force, Michael?


You know, dilithium crystals, rips in the space-time continuum, the flux capacitor, midichlorians, etc...... :D

GarthB Mon Jun 19, 2006 10:11am

Quote:

Originally Posted by SanDiegoSteve
Like I said, I was kidding around. Quit making it some personal crusade, okay. One put down after another? I don't think I made more than 2 or 3 references to Evans in all of my posts. That is hardly over and over. All I said was that he was never one of my favorite AL umpires. I never once said he wasn't smart, or knowledgable, or a good teacher, or any other remark that could be considered a put-down.


Still no clue, eh?

Reverend, Oz, quick, omebody call Jim.........no, no put down there.

Of course, if only you had gone to proschool, you have had a chance to be working on his crew, or maybe he'd have worked on yours.

Nothing here to be considered a put down...just recognizing your ability as you state it.

No crusade here, Steve, just holding up a mirror.

PeteBooth Mon Jun 19, 2006 10:20am

[QUOTE=Dave Hensley]Pro rules. This play actually happened in an American Legion game last week.

Play: R1, balk called, pitcher pitches and batter hits ground ball to F6. Aware that a balk was called, there appears to be a general lack of understanding by the players on the field that the ball is alive and in play. F6, instead of playing on either runner, throws the ball back to the pitcher while R1 trots into 2B.


Dave, doesn't the ball now change status from delayed dead to immediately dead?

Since F6 made no play and threw the ball back to F1, I would call TIME and enforce the Balk Penalty.

I guess the real question on these or similar type plays is:

When a balk is called followed by a play, at what point does the statuts change from dealyed-dead to immediately dead. IMO, once F6 threw the ball back to F1 would constsitute a "break-in-action", hence we call TIME and enforce the penalty.

Pete Booth

GarthB Mon Jun 19, 2006 10:24am

[QUOTE=PeteBooth]
Quote:

Originally Posted by Dave Hensley
Pro rules. This play actually happened in an American Legion game last week.

Play: R1, balk called, pitcher pitches and batter hits ground ball to F6. Aware that a balk was called, there appears to be a general lack of understanding by the players on the field that the ball is alive and in play. F6, instead of playing on either runner, throws the ball back to the pitcher while R1 trots into 2B.

Quote:

Originally Posted by Dave Hensley

Dave, doesn't the ball now change status from delayed dead to immediately dead?

Since F6 made no play and threw the ball back to F1, I would call TIME and enforce the Balk Penalty.


Pete Booth

None the less, both R1 and B/R had advanced a base as a result of the play and prior to the ball getting back to the pitcher, right? So, why change the ball from live to dead?

mbyron Mon Jun 19, 2006 11:21am

Quote:

Originally Posted by RPatrino
WTH is a quasi-force, Michael?

Oh, I just meant 'quasi' in the old-fashioned sense of 'as if': as you know, Bob, by definition, a force play occurs when a runner is forced to advance by the batter becoming a runner. So, technically, the play on BR at 1B can't be a force; yet it's much like a force, and we often talk "as if" it were a force. That's all, nothing fancy. :cool:

Edited to add: Dave Hensley, too, knows it's not a true force play, which is why his posts refer to it as a "force," with scare quotes signaling the distinction.

RPatrino Mon Jun 19, 2006 11:33am

It either is or it ain't. In this case it ain't. ;) :D

Thom Coste Mon Jun 19, 2006 02:58pm

[QUOTE=PeteBooth]
Quote:

Originally Posted by Dave Hensley
Pro rules. This play actually happened in an American Legion game last week.

Play: R1, balk called, pitcher pitches and batter hits ground ball to F6. Aware that a balk was called, there appears to be a general lack of understanding by the players on the field that the ball is alive and in play. F6, instead of playing on either runner, throws the ball back to the pitcher while R1 trots into 2B.

Quote:

Originally Posted by Dave Hensley

Dave, doesn't the ball now change status from delayed dead to immediately dead?

Since F6 made no play and threw the ball back to F1, I would call TIME and enforce the Balk Penalty.

I guess the real question on these or similar type plays is:

When a balk is called followed by a play, at what point does the statuts change from dealyed-dead to immediately dead. IMO, once F6 threw the ball back to F1 would constsitute a "break-in-action", hence we call TIME and enforce the penalty.

Pete Booth

Good grief! Just exactly what was it that made the ball become dead? A batter hit a pitch fair, and proceeded to advance to first base. One fielder threw a live ball to another. A forced runner advanced to the next base.

What made the live ball dead? Slow motion baseball?

PFISTO Tue Jun 27, 2006 03:23pm

Well I would have gotten the call wroung myself but I believe the correct answe is below thanks to my old instructor (not in age)

The BR and R1 advanced at least one base safely which makes the balk null, and it is now ignored. (rule 8.05 Penalty) The BR who touched 1B could have been called out for abandoning his effort to run the bases. See excerpt from rule 7.08(a)(2) below. However, if the umpire does not consider this abandonment the "force" on the BR is reinstated so no tag on the BR is required once the ball was thrown to F3 on the 1b bag. See excerpt from rule 7.08(e) below.

7.08 (a) Any runner is out when: (2) after touching first base, he leaves the baseline, obviously abandoning his effort to touch the next base; Any runner after reaching first base who leaves the baseline heading for his dugout or his position believing that there is no further play, may be declared out if the umpire judges the act of the runner to be considered abandoning his efforts to run the bases. ....

7.08 Any runner is out when: (e) ......However, if the forced runner, after touching the next base, retreats for any reason towards the base he had last occupied, the force play is reinstated, and he can again be put out if the defense tags the base to which he is forced; ......

SanDiegoSteve Tue Jun 27, 2006 08:29pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by PFISTO
Well I would have gotten the call wroung myself but I believe the correct answe is below thanks to my old instructor (not in age)

The BR and R1 advanced at least one base safely which makes the balk null, and it is now ignored. (rule 8.05 Penalty) The BR who touched 1B could have been called out for abandoning his effort to run the bases. See excerpt from rule 7.08(a)(2) below. However, if the umpire does not consider this abandonment the "force" on the BR is reinstated so no tag on the BR is required once the ball was thrown to F3 on the 1b bag. See excerpt from rule 7.08(e) below.

7.08 (a) Any runner is out when: (2) after touching first base, he leaves the baseline, obviously abandoning his effort to touch the next base; Any runner after reaching first base who leaves the baseline heading for his dugout or his position believing that there is no further play, may be declared out if the umpire judges the act of the runner to be considered abandoning his efforts to run the bases. ....

7.08 Any runner is out when: (e) ......However, if the forced runner, after touching the next base, retreats for any reason towards the base he had last occupied, the force play is reinstated, and he can again be put out if the defense tags the base to which he is forced; ......

PFISTO,

The force cannot be reinstated on the batter-runner, as the force out does not apply to the batter-runner, because by definition he cannot be forced. A force, by definition is when a runner loses the right to occupy a base when the batter becomes a runner, and that part of 7.08(e) only applies to forced runners.

This comes from J/R Manual, 2004 edition Chapter 6, Section A, note 12 on page 49. The B/R can retreat as far as the plate and must be tagged out.

PBUC Manual Section 4.24
NOTE: "In situations where the batter-runner gets in a rundown between first and home, if the batter-runner retreats and reaches home plate, he shall be declared out."

Also, for the ruling on 7.08(a)(2) from JEA:

"A batter-runner who inexplicably fails to return directly to 1st base after overrunning it shall not be called out before entering the dugout."

DG Tue Jun 27, 2006 10:19pm

[QUOTE=PeteBooth]
Quote:

Originally Posted by Dave Hensley
Pro rules. This play actually happened in an American Legion game last week.

Play: R1, balk called, pitcher pitches and batter hits ground ball to F6. Aware that a balk was called, there appears to be a general lack of understanding by the players on the field that the ball is alive and in play. F6, instead of playing on either runner, throws the ball back to the pitcher while R1 trots into 2B.

Quote:

Originally Posted by Dave Hensley

Dave, doesn't the ball now change status from delayed dead to immediately dead?

Since F6 made no play and threw the ball back to F1, I would call TIME and enforce the Balk Penalty.

I guess the real question on these or similar type plays is:

When a balk is called followed by a play, at what point does the statuts change from dealyed-dead to immediately dead. IMO, once F6 threw the ball back to F1 would constsitute a "break-in-action", hence we call TIME and enforce the penalty.

Pete Booth

I think in this case I would wait to see if BR reached 1B, and R1 reached 2B, before considering a break in action. After all, both are running, and that is action.

If we call time when F6 releases the ball the ball might go into dead ball territory and our calling time would prevent R1 from going to 3b and BR going to 2B. R1 would stay at 2B and BR would return to the plate if we called time to enforce the balk. Bad outcome for the offense when the defense made not one, but two mistakes.

Don't call time until everybody stops moving around. That is break in action.

mbyron Wed Jun 28, 2006 11:21am

Quote:

Originally Posted by DG
If we call time when F6 releases the ball the ball might go into dead ball territory and our calling time would prevent R1 from going to 3b and BR going to 2B. R1 would stay at 2B and BR would return to the plate if we called time to enforce the balk. Bad outcome for the offense when the defense made not one, but two mistakes.

Don't call time until everybody stops moving around. That is break in action.

The balk is ignored. No reason to call time, since you're not enforcing the balk. Live ball, play on.

Of course, when the coach asks for time to hear your explanation, THEN you'll have to call time.


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