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yankeesfan Wed May 17, 2006 09:51pm

batter interference
 
i seen this play happen in a major league game. runner on first steals second and the batter interfers with the catcher on throw. the umpire sent the runner back to first and the batter was still able to complete his at bat. now, using the fed rules the batter is out and the runner returns to first. in summer leagues that use major league rules, would the batter still be able to finish his at bat without being called out?

UmpJM Wed May 17, 2006 09:57pm

yankeesfan,

If the play you seen happened in the last day or so (Angels vs. Blue Jays perchance), I believe the call was actually umpire interference, not batter interference, in which case the rule was properly enforced.

If, on the other hand, it actually was ruled batter interference, the proper ruling would have been to call the batter out and return the runner (assuming the catcher's throw did not result in the stealing runner immediately being tagged out) - in both FED and OBR.

JM

yankeesfan Wed May 17, 2006 10:20pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by CoachJM
yankeesfan,

If the play you seen happened in the last day or so (Angels vs. Blue Jays perchance), I believe the call was actually umpire interference, not batter interference, in which case the rule was properly enforced.

If, on the other hand, it actually was ruled batter interference, the proper ruling would have been to call the batter out and return the runner (assuming the catcher's throw did not result in the stealing runner immediately being tagged out) - in both FED and OBR.

JM

thank you very much. it was the angels vs. blue jays. i did not realize that was umpire's interference. the announcers said it was batter interference, and actually the batter did not interfer at all so this makes sense now.


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